[B-Greek] Subject and object in a nominal sentence
Vasile Stancu
stancu at mail.dnttm.ro
Thu Oct 2 12:28:30 EDT 2008
Here are some other cases:
OUDEIS DUNATAI EIPEIN, KURIOS IHSOUS, EI MH... (1Co 12:3)
PASA GLWSSA ECOMOLOGHSETAI OTI KURIOS IHSOUS XRISTOS... (Flp 2:11)
It seems to me that one of the rules that govern such contructions could be:
<Equally valid and homologous statements whether one or the other word
serves as subject/predicate: "the lord is Jesus", or "Jesus is lord" - I
perceive no essential difference. On the other hand, it is logical that
something like "No one can utter, 'Lord Jesus', unless..." is not a feasible
meaning of the sentence.>
Vasile STANCU
-----Original Message-----
From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of +Fr Patrick B
O'Grady
Sent: Thursday, October 02, 2008 8:55 AM
To: javajedi2 at yahoo.com; b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Subject and object in a nominal sentence
this is of special interest to me, as well, but especially in the
occurances where the nominal sentences have no article. My Greek
Sprachgefuehl tells me that the following:
QEOS KURIOS KAI EPEFANEN hHMIN... means *The LORD is God and He has
revealed Himself to us*
This is the refrain in Orthodox service of Matins, drawn from Psalm 117
(LXX).
The position of the nouns in this sentence, both anarthrous, indicates
for me KURIOS as subject and QEOS as predicate. However, in your
example, O QEOS AGAPH (even if no ESTIN), the subject is indicated by
the article. But where such a discussion could be found, I do not know.
Fr Patrick B. O'Grady
On Wed, 1 Oct 2008 15:39:06 -0700 (PDT), "Kenneth Litwak"
<javajedi2 at yahoo.com> said:
> Where can I find a detailed discussion of the principles for deciding
> in a sentence, where there is a subject in the nominative and a
> predicate noun in the nominative, which of the two nouns is the
> subject? I gather that if there is one with a definite article, that
> that is the subject, but I'm not sure that this is always the case,
> given that some nouns simply have the article even if we would not use
> it in English, so that might not be any basis for deciding. So, for
> example, how do we know that in 1 John 4:8, (O QEOS AGAPH ESTIN is "God
> is love," rather than "love is God"? Thanks.
>
>
> Ken
>
>
>
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