[B-Greek] When is it appropriate to bring in Hebrew and Aramaic in a Greek NT discussion?
Randall Buth
randallbuth at gmail.com
Tue Apr 21 14:44:06 EDT 2009
from another thread
>Agreed.?
> I think there are only about two situations in which Hebrew /
> Aramaic could be brought into the discussion [of Greek--RB]:
> ... transliterated ...
> ... quotations ... OT ...
Well, I gave a paper last SBL on Luke's unnatural Greek, where the
frequencies and comparisons with 2Acts (16-28) showed that his
writings were not according to how he writes free-flowing Greek.
I consider that as leaving the field wide open for discussing Hebrew
and/or Aramaic influences of various kinds. Though one should
always explain how a monolingual Greek would read and evaluate a
text. for example, look at connectors in Luke. for that matter, compare
the connectors of all four gospels and you will find ideolects that make
it improbable that we are dealing with either a standard Greek or with
a Jewish Greek dialect. There really isn't a shared uniformity.
We have individual writers that all break out of Greek expectancies, but
in different directions.
This coming November there will be a panel at ETS discussing
bilingualism, biglossia, and the Greek NT. My paper is on
penteglossia [high and low Greek, high and low Hebrew, Aramaic
(we don't high a high/low situation with Aramaic, they were writing
close to what they were speaking, it appears. Greek and Hebrew, on the
other hand had both literary registers and spoken registers that were
distinct and recognizable even if inevitably on some kind of scalar cline.)]
All y'all come now ta N'Orleans.
--
Randall Buth, PhD
www.biblicalulpan.org
randallbuth at gmail.com
Biblical Language Center
Learn Easily - Progress Further - Remember for Life
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