[B-Greek] Dr. Wallace on Acts 13.48
Iver Larsen
iver_larsen at sil.org
Sun Aug 2 03:13:39 EDT 2009
----- Original Message -----
From: "Mitch Larramore" <mitchlarramore at yahoo.com>
To: "B- Greek" <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: 2. august 2009 03:56
Subject: [B-Greek] Dr. Wallace on Acts 13.48
> AKOUONTA DE TA EQNH ECAIRON KAI EDOXOZON TON LOGON TOU KURIOU, KAI EPISTEUSAN
> hOSOI HSAN TETAGMENOI EIS ZWHN AIWNION
>
> I think Dr. Daniel Wallace, at least to me, may be the first grammarian to
> produce a grammar book from a distinctly theological viewpoint, namely,
> Calvinism. Even though Dr. Wallace is not known as a Theological scholar, he
> does indirectly speak to these issues through his grammar works. Here are some
> of his comments on Acts 13.48 taken from bible.org (which are pretty close to
> his treatment of this passage in GGBB):
>
> --------
> Acts 13:48 is indeed a strong verse on God's sovereign choice of those who
> would be saved. The verb TETAGMENOI does not occur in Acts 20:13, but the
> aorist form of it does occur in Acts 29:23. There, the middle voice is indeed
> used and is translated like an active verb. However, the aorist has a distinct
> middle form that is different from the passive form. The perfect tense, found
> in Acts 13:48, does not. Context, lexeme, and usage are key. In 1 Cor 16:15,
> an active voice verb is used. So, neither of these texts offers a real
> parallel to Acts 13:48. The problem with taking the verb in Acts 13:48 as a
> middle is that it would have to be a direct middle (the idea would be 'they
> appointed themselves'), which is nonsense in this context and is extremely
> rare of a usage overall. I know of no linguistic ground for overturning the
> traditional translation here.
> --------
>
> What other observations can be made of KAI EPISTEUSAN hOSOI HSAN TETAGMENOI
> and how else could it this clause be translated?
>
> Mitch Larramore
Although I am not a Calvinist, I agree that the participle is probably best
understood as a passive rather than a middle based on how the verb is used
elsewhere in the NT. It may also be of interest to look at similar verbs in a
similar context:
Rom 9:22-24 εἰ δὲ θέλων ὁ θεὸς ἐνδείξασθαι τὴν ὀργὴν καὶ γνωρίσαι τὸ δυνατὸν
αὐτοῦ ἤνεγκεν ἐν πολλῇ μακροθυμίᾳ σκεύη ὀργῆς κατηρτισμένα εἰς ἀπώλειαν, 23 καὶ
ἵνα γνωρίσῃ τὸν πλοῦτον τῆς δόξης αὐτοῦ ἐπὶ σκεύη ἐλέους ἃ προητοίμασεν εἰς
δόξαν; 24 οὓς καὶ ἐκάλεσεν ἡμᾶς οὐ μόνον ἐξ Ἰουδαίων ἀλλὰ καὶ ἐξ ἐθνῶν,
22 EI DE QELWN hO QEOS ENDEIXASQAI THN ORGHN KAI GNWRISAI TO DUNATON AUTOU
ENEGKEN EN POLLHi MAKROQUMIAi SKEUH ORGHS KATHRTISMENA EIS APWLEIAN, 23 KAI hINA
GNWRISHi TON PLOUTON THS DOXHS AUTOU EPI SKEUH ELEOUS hA PROHTOIMASEN EIS DOXAN,
23 hOUS KAI EKALESEN hHMAS OU MONON EX IOUDAIWN ALLA KAI EX EQNWN
I find it of interest that we have καταρτίζω KATARTIZW with εἰς ἀπώλειαν EIS
APWLEIAN
and also προετοιμάζω PROETOIMAZW with εἰς δόξαν EIS DOXAN.
Some kind of arrangement and preparation beforehand takes place, and God is the
explicit actor in v. 23-24, while the participle in v. 22 could be either middle
or passive. How exactly this preparation takes place and what it involves is
beyond the grammar. I believe that both parties have a role to play in the
outcome, but won't go beyond that.
Iver Larsen
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