[B-Greek] Acts 2:23

Tom Moore tom at katabiblon.com
Mon Aug 24 13:43:31 EDT 2009


Can we read this just as well as God, in accordance with his will, passively allowed Jesus to be given over, rather than actively forced him? We could call it a dative of acquiescence. (Is this basically what Dative of Attendant Circumstances means?)

Tom Moore
http://www.katabiblon.com


>  -------Original Message-------
>  From: Carl Conrad <cwconrad2 at mac.com>
>  Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Acts 2:23
>  Sent: Aug 24 '09 13:37
>  
>  
>  On Aug 24, 2009, at 7:51 AM, rhutchin at aol.com wrote:
>  
>  > Acts 2:23 reads--
>  >
>  > TOUTON THi hWRISMENHi? BOULHi KAI PROGNWSEI TOU QEOU EKDOTON DIA  
>  > CEIROS ANDRWN PROSPHXANTES ANEILATE (emended)
>  >
>  > In a discussion on this verse, a comment was made--
>  >
>  > "Again, the passage explicitly lists God's determinative counsel and  
>  > foreknowledge (progneois)
>  > as the instrumental means by which Christ was delivered to the forces
>  > you mention above. ...God's determinative counsel and foreknowledge  
>  > are still in the dative
>  > case and thus are the instrumental means of Christ being delivered to
>  > the forces you mention. As the passage says, "Him, being delivered  
>  > by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God".  This is  
>  > simply what the passage says in both English and Greek."
>  >
>  > By instrumental means, I take the person to mean "cause" so that the  
>  > the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God caused (or brought  
>  > about) the end result (the crucifixion).
>  >
>  > Is this what the speaker in the passage in Acts meant by using the  
>  > dative or is it an exegetical extrapolation by the commenter from  
>  > that text?
>  
>  I would hope that we (those who respond to this query, that is) can  
>  withhold our own theological presuppositions in any discussion of this  
>  query and focus on the syntax as it bears upon the question raised.
>  
>  In response, I would note first of all that "the speaker in the  
>  passage in Acts" (Peter, is it not?) is stating by use of an aorist 2  
>  pl. verb and a plural aorist nominative participle that the persons  
>  who he is addressing are responsible for the execution (of Jesus); the  
>  dative phrase in question (THi hWRISMENHi? BOULHi KAI PROGNWSEI TOU  
>  QEOU) has a bearing only upon the adjective EKDOTON. Of course, that  
>  is exactly what the quoted text indicates, but I think it's important  
>  to be clear what the focus of the question is.
>  
>  The dative phrase in question is unquestionably instrumental, but that  
>  doesn't mean that it must be a dative of means; I would expect a  
>  dative of means to point to a tool whereby a task is performed. In my  
>  judgment, this dative is one more common termed "Dative of manner" or  
>  "Dative of Attendant Circumstances" -- what Wallace calls (p. 161)  
>  "Dative of Manner (or Adverbial Dative)  [with, in (answering  
>  “How?”)]." Is this a quibble? Is it comparable to the multiplying  
>  subcategories of the adnominal genitive? I don't know, but I'm  
>  troubled by the idea of calling this dative usage "Cause." The very  
>  word calls to mind the distinctions Aristotle makes between the four  
>  AITIAI -- material, efficient, formal, final; "cause" is a slippery  
>  word.
>  
>  
>  Carl W. Conrad
>  Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
>  
>  
>  
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