[B-Greek] on missing verb in I John 1:3
George F Somsel
gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Mon Dec 7 12:55:58 EST 2009
Welcome to the list. First, it is customary (and virtually required) that you include the text.
ὃ ἑωράκαμεν καὶ ἀκηκόαμεν, ἀπαγγέλλομεν καὶ ὑμῖν, ἵνα καὶ ὑμεῖς κοινωνίαν ἔχητε μεθʼ ἡμῶν.καὶ ἡ κοινωνία δὲ ἡ ἡμετέρα μετὰ τοῦ πατρὸς καὶ μετὰ τοῦ υἱοῦ αὐτοῦ Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ.
hO hEWRAKAMEN KAI AKHKOAMEN, APAGGELLOMEN KAI hUMIN, hINA KAI hUMEIS KOINWNIAN EXHTE MEQ' hHMWN. KAI hH KOINWNIA DE hH hHMETERA META TOU PATROS KAI META TOU hUIOU AUTOU IHSOU XRISTOU.
The verb is not missing here -- it simply isn't present :-)
This is what is known as a "verbless clause." There are times when other verbs are understood, but generally it is the copulative verb εἰμί.
george
gfsomsel
… search for truth, hear truth,
learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth,
defend the truth till death.
- Jan Hus
_________
----- Original Message ----
From: Raymond Olson <rcolson at telusplanet.net>
To: b-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Mon, December 7, 2009 10:24:02 AM
Subject: [B-Greek] on missing verb in I John 1:3
I am new to the list and am enjoying the interactions, information, good advice and comraderie. Thank you to all of you for your queries, answers and comments. I am venturing out with a question.
I am working my way through I John. The last phrase of I John 1:3 has no verb: KAI hH KOINONIA DE hH hHMETERA META TOU PATROS KAI META TOU hUIOU AUTOU IHSOU CRISTOU.
I'm looking for some treatment on the subject of the missing verb, specifically the "be" verb.
Thanks much,
Ray Olson
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