[B-Greek] More thanks or more tongues? 1Cor14:18

Carl Conrad cwconrad2 at mac.com
Tue Dec 15 10:32:49 EST 2009


On Dec 15, 2009, at 7:01 AM, bgreek at global4.freeserve.co.uk wrote:
> a couple of basic questions about this verse...
> 
> EUCARISTW TW QEW PANTWN hUMWN MALLON GLWSSAIS LALW
> 
> is generally translated along the lines:
> 
> I thank God that I speak in tongues more than all of you (NIV)
> 
> Is it acceptable to translate this
> 
> "I thank God more than all of you, that I speak in tongues", or does the word order or other consideration not allow this?
> 
> Also, in the Elzevir 1624 edn, the Greek is different from the Nestle:
> 
> EUCARISTW TW QEW MOU PANTWN hUMWN MALLON GLWSSAIS LALWN
> 
> Can this be translated:
> "I thank my God (by means of) speaking in tongues more than any of you"
> 
> In some ways this seems to fit the context better as in vs16-17, Paul is talking about an individual speaking in tongues as giving thanks to God, to then say "I use tongues to give thanks to God more than any of you" fits logically - but I am not sure whether Greek permits this.

Do you mean, "I thank my God more than any of you (does) when I speak in tongues?" I think that PANTWN hUMWN can only be construed with MALLON.
NA27/USB4 place a comma after QEWi, rightly, I think. And I think that verse 19 makes much more sense if verse 17 is understood as an affirmation on Paul's part that he does speak in tongues more than any of the Corinthian congregation.

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)






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