[B-Greek] "Erasmian?" really? WAS: Another Audio Greek New Testament, free on the Internet
Vasile STANCU
stancu at mail.dnttm.ro
Tue Dec 15 10:41:17 EST 2009
Did Erasmus treat the accentuation system in his famous work? My
understanding is that he dealt exclusively with the way certain letters were
to be pronounced.
As for accents, there are some (myself included) who believe that "the
position of ancient Greek accent is largely the same as that of modern
Greek" (Probert P., Ancient Greek Accentuation, Oxford University Press,
2006, p. 26) and that "the Alexandrian system of accentuation is real" (p.
27). Why then go for "the third option", or even for a second one? I believe
the effort involved in learning ancient Greek is the same, whether one
complies with the system demonstrated intrinsically by the accentuation
system, or not - the other difficulties of the language are comparatively
much greater. In a Spanish class, would you have any reason to pronounce,
for instance, "despértar" instead of "despertár", or "caloriféro" instead of
"calorífero"? Why not the same with Ancient Greek, since in both languages
graphic accents are available?
Vasile Stancu
-----Original Message-----
From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of James Ernest
Sent: Tuesday, December 15, 2009 2:44 PM
To: B-Greek
Subject: [B-Greek] "Erasmian?" really? WAS: Another Audio Greek New
Testament, free on the Internet
The third option, evidently, is not to have a system at all--i.e., ignore
the accents entirely and emphasize syllables randomly
...
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James D. Ernest, PhD, Editor
Baker Academic & Brazos Press
jernest at BakerPublishingGroup.com / http://www.BakerPublishingGroup.com
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