[B-Greek] John 3:16 "so"

Iver Larsen iver_larsen at sil.org
Wed Dec 16 00:05:10 EST 2009


----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Steve Runge" <srunge at logos.com>
To: "Harold Holmyard" <hholmyard3 at earthlink.net>; "B-Greek" 
<b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: 16. december 2009 03:32
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] John 3:16 "so"


> Harold,
>
> I would suggest breaking the problem down into smaller components. The first 
> controversy regards which way hOUTWS refers, whether it is anaphoric or 
> cataphoric. The answer to this question will influence the sense you assign 
> it, typically either manner or degree. In reading the literature on this 
> issue, cases are made for both backward- and forward-pointing reference. If it 
> is backward, the antecedent would be the lifting up of the Son of Man as the 
> demonstration of God's love. The forward-pointing alternative would view the 
> hWSTE clause as the referent.
>
> I played and replayed the scenarios. Forward-pointing hOUTWS references are 
> typically resolved in:
> 1.  a quotation (e.g. Mt 2:5 referring to v. 6, or Mt. 6:9);
> 2.  a subordinate clause introduced by hOTI (e.g. Mk 4:26, Lk 19:31), hWS 
> (e.g. 1 Cor 4:1; 9:26; Jas 2:12), hINA (e.g. Mt 18:14);
> 3.  an infinitive (e.g. Lk 1:25).
> I have not found another instance where a cataphoric hOUTWS reference is 
> resolved by hWSTE. It might could happen, but John 3:16 would be the lone 
> token in the GNT.
>
> According to my analysis in the Discourse GNT, John 21:21 is the only 
> forward-pointing hOUTWS reference in the gospel other than the potential one 
> in 3:16. There it is simply a general reference to the events that follow 
> where Jesus reveals himself to the disciples after the resurrection. On the 
> basis of the broader usage and that within John's gospel, I view the 
> forward-pointing reading of hOUTWS in 3:16 as the harder and less likely one.
>
> The second part regards the sense of hOUTWS. I understand hOUTWS to be a 
> "pro-adverb" (sorry Carl, know you hate the terms). It is an adverb in that it 
> modifies a verb, and it is a pro-form in that it can stand in the place of a 
> concept like a pronoun. In 3:16, you need to choose your concept that it 
> stands in place of, which in both cases would be a manner, not a degree. Thus 
> I do not think that there is merit to the degree reading, the only sound 
> option is manner. There is nothing in the preceding or following context 
> describing a degree, only two manners: lifting up the Son of Man, and giving 
> his only son.
>
> This is my two cents, though I am sure there will be other opinions.

This has been discussed before, and you will find some interesting posts on it 
from June 2004 under the same heading John 3:16.

What I have so far not seen entering into the discussion is John's use of hWSTE. 
Whereas hWSTE was commonly used as a regular result connector in Classical 
Greek, this has changed in the times of the NT and especially in John. The 
normal result connector for John is hINA (which can also have other meanings.) 
John only uses hWSTE in 3:16.

Donna Fedukowsky did research on the use of hWSTE which was published as:
On The Use Of hwste With The Infinitive
Selected technical articles related to translation, No. 14 (December 1985): 
25–32.
I can send the article off-list to those who might be interested.

She shows that in many cases in the NT, hWSTE indicates an unexpected, 
surprising result. This suggests that the degree is not derived from hOUTWS in 
John 3:16, but from hWSTE and the context. hOUTWS indicates the manner, I.e. he 
showed his love by sending his one and only son.

It is these two words in combination enlightened by an understanding of John's 
Greek style and language that supports the translation "so much", which is also 
a result of a contextual interpretation by those who did not know the special 
usage of hWSTE in John. (For instance, Living Bible.)

Whether hOUTWS points forwards or backwards is related to where the quote ends. 
I don't know what Steve says about this, but others who have studied the 
discourse of John, conclude that v. 15 is the end of Jesus' speech and v. 16 
begins John's comment, just as is the case with 3:31. I agree with that 
analysis. Introducing an author comment is one of the functions of GAR, (which 
is not clear from the English translation "for").

Iver Larsen 




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