[B-Greek] Habbakuk 2:4b - objective genitive?
George F Somsel
gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Fri Dec 18 11:08:40 EST 2009
Again, I doubt that. In Rom 1.17; Gal 3.11 and in Heb 10.38 when "Paul" quotes this he stops short of giving the pronoun. I'm inclined to think this was deliberately done in order to avoid any controversey regarding the text. I think Paul (not here including the humorously labelled "Paul") was well aware that the Hebrew did not read "my" but rather "his." I imagine that the author of Hebrews, whoever he may have been, was likewise aware of this since he too avoids the problem.
george
gfsomsel
… search for truth, hear truth,
learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth,
defend the truth till death.
- Jan Hus
_________
________________________________
From: Eric S. Weiss <papaweiss1 at yahoo.com>
To: b-greek <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Fri, December 18, 2009 8:52:53 AM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Habbakuk 2:4b - objective genitive?
George:
I know the textual problem vis-a-vis the Hebrew that the LXX displays (i.e., "his" versus
"my").
But my question is not whether or not the LXX got the Hebrew right, but how the LXX of
Habakkuk 2:4b can be understood or read or used by the reader or by an expositor like
Paul.
My question - which arose from an attempt to translate/explicate this section of Romans 1
and its relationship to Paul's teachings on PISTIS and DIKAIOSUNH - is whether or not
MOU in the LXX of Hab 2:4b can be understood or translated as an objective genitive. If so,
I think this potentially nuances Paul's use of the phrase in Romans 1:17 and elsewhere,
and tangentially could be a factor in the PISTIS CRISTOU discussion, IMO.
- - -
Eric S. Weiss
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