[B-Greek] Interrogative HOTI?
JBarach at aol.com
JBarach at aol.com
Tue Feb 3 14:17:50 EST 2009
BGreeks --
Could any of you tell me about the interrogative use of HOTI? It's often
translated "why" in the Bible. I haven't checked yet with extrabiblical
sources.
Turner (Syntax 49) speaks of it as a confusion of relative and interrogative
pronoun, and thinks that hoti comes from HO TIwhich, he says, is an
abbreviation of TI (ESTIN) HOTI. See also Zerwick, Biblical Greek, para. 222 and
Blass-Debrunner-Funk, para. 300 for LXX.
BDAG (hoti 2b) speaks of the ellipsis TI HOTI, "what (is it) that? why?"
For HOTI= "why?" BDAG points to HOSTIS 4b, which deals with HO TI. BDAG does
provide some reference to places in Thu. 1, 90, 5; Jos. Ant. 6, 236; 12, 213
and so forth as examples of hoti = "why?"
Is it possible, though, that in Matt. 16:7; Mark 8:16; Mark 9:11a, 28 --
which are the only instances in the New Testament, apart from some variant
readings, as far as I can tell -- HOTI could be rendered as "because," though in a
questioning way: "(Was it) because...?" That would seem to fit in both
cases:
The first two are ambiguous. In both Matt. 16:7 and Mark 8:16, the HOTI may
introduce a statement: The disciples say THAT "we have no bread." Or it may
be a conclusion: "(He says this) because we have no bread." The latter
seems to me to fit better. Of course, these aren't (clearly) questions, though
they could be taken as such: "(Is he saying this) because we have no bread?"
In Mark 9:11a, the question has to do with what the scribes have taught
about Elijah coming first. It's often rendered: "WHY do the scribes say that
Elijah has to come first and restore all things?" But Jesus' answer doesn't
have to do with why the scribes say that, nor does he dispute what the scribes
say.
It may actually make more sense to take the flow of the passage as follows:
The disciples aren't sure why Jesus is talking about suffering and death,
about "rising from the dead." Is it because (HOTI) the scribes say that Elijah
must come first? That is, does the scribal teaching explain it? Is it not
time for Jesus to establish the kingdom in glory (as the disciples expect)
because he's waiting for Elijah to restore all things -- and once Elijah does,
of course, there will be no more talk of suffering for the Messiah?
Mark 9:28 is often rendered: "WHY were we unable to cast it out?" And Jesus
does seem to give a reason. But it's also possible, isn't it, to take HOTI
as a question starting with "because," with an implied first part of the
sentence: "(Did you react the way you did) BECAUSE we were unable to cast it
out?"
I haven't looked at the examples in the LXX or Josephus or elsewhere.
Turner certainly seems very tentative when he puts forward his position, almost as
if it doesn't satisfy him. So ... is it possible that HOTI isn't simply
"why?" but actually introduces a supposed reason in the form of a question: "(Is
it) because/that ...?"
Again, I haven't checked extrascriptural examples. For that matter, come to
think of it, I haven't looked at the usage in the variant readings either.
Thoughts?
John
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