[B-Greek] Interrogative HOTI?

JBarach at aol.com JBarach at aol.com
Tue Feb 3 14:17:50 EST 2009


BGreeks --
 
 
Could any of you tell me about the interrogative use of  HOTI?  It's often 
translated "why" in the Bible.  I  haven't checked yet with extrabiblical 
sources.
 
Turner (Syntax 49) speaks of it as a confusion of relative and  interrogative 
pronoun, and thinks that hoti comes from HO  TIwhich, he says, is an 
abbreviation of TI (ESTIN) HOTI.  See  also Zerwick, Biblical Greek, para. 222 and 
Blass-Debrunner-Funk, para.  300 for LXX.
 
BDAG (hoti 2b) speaks of the ellipsis TI HOTI, "what (is  it) that? why?"  
For HOTI= "why?" BDAG points to HOSTIS 4b, which deals with HO TI.  BDAG does 
provide some reference  to places in Thu. 1, 90, 5; Jos. Ant. 6, 236; 12, 213 
and so forth as examples  of hoti = "why?"
 
Is it possible, though, that in Matt. 16:7; Mark 8:16; Mark 9:11a, 28 --  
which are the only instances in the New Testament, apart from some variant  
readings, as far as I can tell -- HOTI could be rendered as "because,"  though in a 
questioning way: "(Was it) because...?"  That would seem to fit  in both 
cases:
 
The first two are ambiguous.  In both Matt. 16:7 and Mark 8:16, the  HOTI may 
introduce a statement: The disciples say THAT "we have no  bread."  Or it may 
be a conclusion: "(He says this) because we have no  bread."  The latter 
seems to me to fit better.  Of course, these  aren't (clearly) questions, though 
they could be taken as such: "(Is he saying  this) because we have no bread?"
 
In Mark 9:11a, the question has to do with what the scribes have taught  
about Elijah coming first.  It's often rendered: "WHY do the scribes say  that 
Elijah has to come first and restore all things?"  But Jesus' answer  doesn't 
have to do with why the scribes say that, nor does he dispute what the  scribes 
say.  
 
It may actually make more sense to take the flow of the passage as follows:  
The disciples aren't sure why Jesus is talking about suffering and death, 
about  "rising from the dead."  Is it because (HOTI) the scribes say that  Elijah 
must come first?  That is, does the scribal teaching explain  it?  Is it not 
time for Jesus to establish the kingdom in glory (as the  disciples expect) 
because he's waiting for Elijah to restore all things -- and  once Elijah does, 
of course, there will be no more talk of suffering for the  Messiah?
 
Mark 9:28 is often rendered: "WHY were we unable to cast it out?"  And  Jesus 
does seem to give a reason.  But it's also possible, isn't it, to  take HOTI 
as a question starting with "because," with an implied  first part of the 
sentence: "(Did you react the way you did) BECAUSE we were  unable to cast it 
out?"  
 
I haven't looked at the examples in the LXX or Josephus or elsewhere.   
Turner certainly seems very tentative when he puts forward his position, almost  as 
if it doesn't satisfy him.  So ... is it possible that HOTI isn't simply  
"why?" but actually introduces a supposed reason in the form of a question: "(Is  
it) because/that ...?"
 
Again, I haven't checked extrascriptural examples.  For that matter,  come to 
think of it, I haven't looked at the usage in the variant readings  either.  
Thoughts?
 
John
 
 
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