[B-Greek] John 3:13

timothy mcmahon targum at msn.com
Fri Feb 27 00:10:46 EST 2009


I know this sounds weird, but I run into all sorts of things.

John 3:13 (Majority Text): OUDEIs ANABEBHKEN... EI MH hO EK TOU OURANOU KATABAS hO hUIOs TOU ANQRWPOU hO WN EN TW OURANW

I guy I'm blogging with has a theological agenda which he wishes to facilitate by taking hO WN EN TW OURANW as referring to ANQRWPOU rather than to hUIOs. I explained to him the notion of case concord, but he came back with the Nominative of Appellation, citing Revelation 1:4, APO QEOU hO WN.

Other than simple common sense, is there a solid reason to reject this in favor of understanding hO WN as referring to hUIOs?


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