[B-Greek] Subject-Verb Agreement in Mark 3:28

Jason Kenney please_come_soon at yahoo.com
Sat Jan 3 19:48:36 EST 2009


Hello All,

This is my first post, and so forgive me if there is any breach in protocol!

I was reading over Mark 3:28 and I noticed that the nominative "all sins" (παντα αμαρτηματα)is plural while the finite verb it corresponds to (αφεθησεται) is third-person singular.

I also noted that none of my commentaries (even my greek one's) mention this...am I missing something?

Can anyone explain why there is no subject-verb agreement, and why no translation/commentator seems to think this is a problem?

Thanks in advance!

Jason Kenney
Student, The Cornerstone Seminary

Crux sola nostra theologia


      



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