[B-Greek] Rom 4:1
Mitch Larramore
mitchlarramore at yahoo.com
Mon Jul 20 14:30:45 EDT 2009
Iver:
Would anyone consider NT Wright's Greek scholarly? In my extensive reading, I've never seen a known Greek scholar cite NT Wright as any Greek authority. I'm not trying to be negatively critical, but I would be interested in any of the b-Greek scholars commenting on NT Wright's Greek. If he is a Greek scholar, he sure hides it well!
Mitch Larramore
Sugar Land, Texas
--- On Mon, 7/20/09, Iver Larsen <iver_larsen at sil.org> wrote:
> From: Iver Larsen <iver_larsen at sil.org>
> Subject: [B-Greek] Rom 4:1
> To: "BG" <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
> Date: Monday, July 20, 2009, 12:21 PM
> While reading N.T. Wright I came to
> his peculiar understanding of Rom 4:1.
>
> The text is:
>
> Τί οὖν ἐροῦμεν εὑρηκέναι
> Ἀβραὰμ τὸν προπάτορα ἡμῶν
> κατὰ σάρκα;
> TI OUN EROUMEN hEURHKENAI ABRAAM TON PROPATORA hHMWN KATA
> SARKA?
>
> He says that the following translation "works extremely
> well with the Greek":
> "What then shall we say? Have we found Abraham to be our
> forefather according to
> the flesh?"
>
> Can anyone explain to me how he can suggest "we" as
> implicit subject for the
> perfect infinitive? I assume that Wright is not a member of
> b-Greek, but maybe
> some one else has accepted his exegesis and can defend it?
>
> How can he cut the sentence into two with an indicative
> form of "found" when the
> infinitive depends on EIPON? And how does that work
> extremely well with the
> Greek?
>
> Thanks,
>
> Iver Larsen
>
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