[B-Greek] Present infinitives in John 6:15

Iver Larsen iver_larsen at sil.org
Thu Nov 26 23:49:54 EST 2009


MELLEIN plus aorist is found in Act 12:6, Rev 1:19, 3:2,16, 12:4.

The present is much more common, and the presents in John 6:15 adds vividness 
and drama to the story. The significance here is aspect rather than time. The 
aorist POIHSWSIN is a simple event viewed as a whole. The present forms ERCESQAI 
KAI hARPAZAIN can also indicate that these events are contemplated but will not 
be effected. Therefore they are not and will not be complete.

Iver Larsen

----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Carl W. Conrad" <cwconrad2 at mac.com>
To: <andrew.mcconnel at lineone.net>
Cc: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: 26. november 2009 19:54
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Present infinitives in John 6:15


> These verbs are complementary to the auxliliary verb MELLOUSIN. Classical 
> Attic commonly used a future infinitive with MELLEIN, while Koine seems to 
> prefer a present infinitive. I can't recall seeing MELLEIN used with an aorist 
> infinitive (but someone will undoubtedly show me one right away!).
>
> Carl W. Conrad
> Department of Classics, Washington University (ret)
>
>
> On Thursday, November 26, 2009, at 10:35AM, "andrew.mcconnel at lineone.net" 
> <andrew.mcconnel at lineone.net> wrote:
>>
>>
>>
>>
>> Hi,I`m writing to ask why the two infinitives in John 6:15 are in the present 
>> tense and not the aorist.
>>John 6:15  Ἰησοῦς οὖν γνοὺς ὅτι μέλλουσιν
>>ἔρχεσθαι καὶ ἁρπάζειν αὐτὸν ἵνα
>>ποιήσωσιν βασιλέα ἀνεχώρησεν.. ..   IHSOUS OUN GNOUS hOTI MELLOUSIN ERCHESTHAI 
>>KAI hARPAZEIN AUTON hINA POIHSWSIN BASILEA ANECHWRHSEN.. ..
>>Given that the aorist is normally used for complete actions, rather than 
>>on-going processes, and especially because the verb in the following 
>>subordinate phrase ποιήσωσιν POIHSWSIN is in the aorist, I am puzzled by this.
>>My context is that (although without a specifically NT Greek training) I am 
>>teaching a NT Greek class, using Duff. A brighter student was wary of the 
>>"default" explanation of the use of  the aorist infinitive in Chapter 7 and 
>>asked for more examples. I said that Duff`s explanation was to counter the 
>>normal English use of the present infinitive. We have been pulling verses out 
>>of the gospels to illustrate this and that, and this time landed on John 
>>6:15 - which only confused the issue. I`d be grateful for any comments, 
>>please. Thank you.
>>Andrew McConnel.
>>
>>
>>
>>Travel tips and treats - http://www.tiscali.co.uk/travel
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