[B-Greek] luke 11:28, please

Edward Andrews edandrews at roadrunner.com
Wed Sep 16 18:02:37 EDT 2009


Mihai:

?????? is literally "indeed," but rendered "rather." It should not be understood as negating the previous statement of the woman in verse 27, but should be viewed as [corrective] "indeed therefore." In other words: Jesus is is concurring with "indeed," yet stressing something of more relevance still: "Blessed rather are those who hear the word of God and keep it!" While Mary is blessed in that she was afforded the opportunity of giving birth to and raising Jesus, but her greater blessing comes because she had heard the Word of God and kept it.

Generally speaking if Luke wanted to refute what the woman had said, he would have used ???? ???? ???? [ouchi lego hymin]. - see Luke 12:51; 13: 3, 5. 

Edward Andrews
  ----- Original Message ----- 
  From: Mihai Marius 
  To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org 
  Sent: Wednesday, September 16, 2009 5:24 PM
  Subject: [B-Greek] luke 11:28, please


  Hello,
  My name is Marius Mihai and I`m from Romania. I have study three bibles: protestant, orthodox versus greek. Now, my study has stoped because the word "menoun" from the verset 28 on the 11 chapter of Luke gospels. So, please help me: :menoun" is "rather" or "in-deed", in english?

  please help me.
  God bless you!



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