[B-Greek] EMFASIS in NT Greek

Iver Larsen iver_larsen at sil.org
Wed Sep 23 03:01:59 EDT 2009


----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Yancy Smith" <yancywsmith at sbcglobal.net>
To: "'B-Greek B-Greek'" <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: 22. september 2009 20:23
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] EMFASIS in NT Greek


>I agree, Elizabeth. DEISIDAIMWN would then contain an implicit criticism 
>("flatterers" of the gods, though BDAG disallows this, evidently because the 
>editors did not consider this a case of EMFASIS), but also would contain an 
>"out" since it also has a positive connotation. The brilliance of the slight is 
>that the readers can "get it" and laugh but the hearers at Mars Hill would not 
>be able to determine which meaning he intended. For the ancient Christian 
>reader, the facts speak for themselves, for the modern reader they might not 
>speak at all. Demetrius says of EMFASIS for the purpose of ASFALEIA that
> "Often what we say is directed toward a tyrant or someone who is vilent in 
> some other way, and when we want to censure him, we are compelled to use 
> figured speech." (289)
> Πολλάκις δὲ ἢ πρὸς τύραννον ἢ ἄλλως βίαιόν τινα διαλεγόμενοι καὶ ὀνειδίσαι 
> ὁρμῶντες χρῄζομεν ἐξ ἀνάγκης σχήματος λόγου,
> POLLAKIS DE H PROS TURANNON H ALLWS BIAION TINA DIALEGOMENOI KAI ONEIDISAI 
> hORMWNTES CRHiZOMEN EX ANAGKEHS SCHMATOS LOGOU
>
> "Flattery is shameful. Direct criticism is risky. The best course is the 
> middle road, figured speech."
> τὸ μὲν οὖν κολακεύειν αἰσχρόν, τὸ δὲ ἐπιτιμᾶν ἐπισφαλές, ἄριστον δὲ τὸ μεταξύ, 
> τοῦτ' ἔστι τὸ ἐσχηματισμένον.
> TO MEN OUN KOLAKEUEIN AISCRON, TO DE EPITIMAN EPISFALES, ARISTON DE TO METAXU, 
> TOUT ESTI TO EXCHMATISMENON.

I suppose flattery is shameful when it is clearly deceptive and everyone knows 
that the flatterer is lying. However, if the addressee is in a high office, he 
might well believe the smooth words, even if the speaker says them in order to 
make a good expression or obtain a favor and may not necessarily agree with 
those words. When I look at Acts 24:2-4 it sounds like flattery to me and I 
doubt that the words would be considered shameful.

Concerning avoiding direct criticism, I think that is very common in many 
cultures. At least I am used to living in a culture where politicians will often 
use figures of speech to criticize others. When confronted later by journalists 
they will always respond: I didn't say that, or I didn't mean it that way. 
(Meaning: I was careful to be indirect so that I could always have a way out). 
Some of the parables/stories in the OT and NT are indirect criticisms.

This was a challenge for us when translating a particular figure of speech Jesus 
used (in Greek hH GENEA hAUTH). For instance, in Mark 8:11 a group of hostile 
Pharisees came to Jesus to test him by demanding to see a sign "from Heaven". 
Jesus answered them: "Why does this generation seek a sign?" The phrase GENEA 
hAUTH refers to the addressees in an indirect and ambiguous way. So, I asked our 
national translators how they would use a similar kind of speech, and they 
responded quickly. "Oh, yes", they said. "We do this all the time. A public 
speaker cannot directly accuse anyone in his audience, but if he wants to 
criticize some of them he will say 'some people'. " So we translated this verse 
as: "Why do some people want a sign?" In Danish we said for Mrk 8:12: "Certain 
people demand signs and wonders, before they are ready to believe. But I tell 
you: Such people will get no sign."

A similar figure of speech is to use "I" when criticizing "you". Paul does it in 
Gal 2:18 and Rom 7, and maybe other places. The purpose is to avoid offending 
the addressees.

Iver Larsen 




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