[B-Greek] Punctuation of John 9:3-4
Sarah Madden
sarah.r.madden at gmail.com
Fri Sep 25 11:54:59 EDT 2009
Rob --
Not only did the original Greek autographs not have punctuation, they did
not distinguish uppercase from lowercase letters because they were written
in all caps, and with no spaces between the words (kind of like this:
THEYWEREWRITTENINALLCAPS). So, as you surmised, the punctuation was a later
addition.
Sarah ><>
Maryland
On Fri, Sep 25, 2009 at 11:49 AM, Daniel, Robert S <rob.daniel at hp.com>wrote:
>
> APEKRIQH hO IHSOUS OUTE hOUTOS hHMARTEN OUTE hOI GONEIS AUTOU ALL' hINA
> FANERWQH TA ERGA TOU QEOU EN AUTW EME/hHMEIS DEI ERGAZESQAI TA ERGA TOU
> PEMYANTOS ME hEWS hHEMERA ESTIN ERCETAI NUX hOTE OUDEIS DUNATAI ERGAZESQAI
>
> All of the Greek editions and translations I've looked at put the first
> period after AUTW and before EME/hHMEIS (19th and 20th word above). Is that
> really the right place for it? Does the phrase ALL' hINA FANERWQH TA ERGA
> TOU QEOU EN AUTW belong with the sentence before or the sentence after?
> Translating it as literally as possible into English it seems awkward or
> even ungrammatical when it is included as part of the preceding sentence but
> smoother when attached to the following sentence. Is it really an awkward
> construction in the original Greek? Also, the word ERGA seems to connect it
> to the following sentence with its repetition of ERGA and then its verb
> ERGAZESQAI.
>
> So on the basis of grammar and/or style can a case be made for punctuating
> it as I have suggested rather than as the Greek editions and translations
> do?
>
> I'm assuming that the manuscripts do not include punctuation, so that the
> punctuation is a later addition. Is that a safe assumption?
>
> Thanks, Rob
>
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--
Sarah ><>
sarah.r.madden at gmail.com
work: 301.429.8189
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