[B-Greek] noun gender question
Fred Smith
fredsmith1000 at usa.com
Sun Sep 27 19:47:26 EDT 2009
Someone suggested the following explanation of noun gender in Matthew
16:18. Would someone please let me know if there is any merit to this
idea?
"The word Peter does equal Petros and it is masculine. The reason is
masculine is because it is talking about an individual. Jesus is talking
to Peter, and he refers to Peter in the masculine. The word rock is
indeed in the feminine. And I believe that it is in the feminine because
it refers to the statement Peter made. Because it was referring to a
statement and not a human being it had to be said in the feminine."
Thanks,
Ren
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