[B-Greek] Mark 1:41
RRedden604 at aol.com
RRedden604 at aol.com
Thu Apr 8 19:20:03 EDT 2010
Ron,
A.T. Robertson has a fine discourse on the historical present (866f).
Mark and John seem to be more fond of its use than the other NT writers. He
claims Luke in most parallels changes the historical present since it was
not to his liking. However, in Lk. 5:13, the parallel to Mk. 1:41 he uses
the present part. It seems to me, as Mark L. points out, to be Mark's
proclivity rather than something significant.
I, too, would like to hear the B-Gk scholars respond.
Rob Redden
In a message dated 4/8/2010 1:14:42 P.M. Pacific Daylight Time,
sarasotapt at comcast.net writes:
Is there anything specific regarding the timing that we can glean from
the events in Mark 1:41, describing the healing of the leper. The first
two verbs are aorist, while the verb for speaking is found in the
present tense. Does it make sense to understand that Jesus was speaking
at the same time He was extending His hand, which culminated in the
physical contact with the leper? Or, should one read the present tense
as occurring after the contact?
kai. splagchnisqei evkteinas he cheira autou hpsato kai legei autw
??? ????????????? ???????? ??? ????? ????? ????? ??? ????? ????
I hope the transliteration is ok, since I could not find anyplace on the
list page that gives the scheme. Will also include the unicode version
for those that can read it.
Regards,
Ron Snider
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