[B-Greek] The Unattractiveness of Attraction?

Leonard Jayawardena leonardj at live.com
Tue Dec 7 00:50:14 EST 2010


 
Mark L. wrote:
 
"Generally, when people talk about attraction, they talk about a relative being attracted to the case of its prior antecedent, so what you have in Phil 1:27-28 is actually reverse attraction, I think, which is even a more unattractive term."
 
LJ:  

Actually, what we have in Phil. 1:27-28 is attraction of the relative to the gender of the predicate. "Inverse attraction" (or "reverse attaction," as you put it), is the assimilation of the gender of the antecedent to that of the relative. Normally, it is the other way round--hence the term "inverse attraction." 
 
An example is Ps. 118:22 (LXX), quoted in Mt. 21:42; Mk. 12:10 and Lk. 17: 
 
LIQON, hON APEDOKIMASAN hOI OIKODOMOUNTES,
hOUTOS EGENHQH EIS KEFALHN GWNIAS.
 
Normal grammar would require LIQOS (nominative), hON ..., which is exactly what we have in 1 Peter 2:7: LIQOS, hON APEDOKIMASAN hOI OIKODOMOUNTES ....
 
 
Leonard Jayawardena
 		 	   		  


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