[B-Greek] How should one understand I Cor. 11:33?
Blue Meeksbay
bluemeeksbay at yahoo.com
Fri Dec 17 12:11:47 EST 2010
Hi Iver,
I do not think there is any difference between the two examples. That was my
observance also, that is why I was wondering if it was just a stylistic
preference. George S. seems to think so. Sorry, I guess I did not communicate my
thoughts very well. In verse 20 he uses just a simple infinitive, and did not
use EIS TO, but as verse 33 was his concluding thoughts on the subject, I
wondered why he did not continue with a simple infinitive when it would have
communicated the same thought. I was wondering if in his conclusion he was
trying to emphasize purpose in a fuller way, especially since their partaking of
the Lord’s Supper seemed to be a manifestation of their observance of the
traditions Paul passed on to them that Paul mentions in the beginning of
this section in I Cor. 11:2. Or, on the other hand, I wondered if he added EIS
TO because he was now using FAGEIN as an infinitive of result.
I am not sure what the answer is, since they all seem to fit the context. I’m
trying to consider all possibilities.
Regards,
Blue Harris
________________________________
From: Iver Larsen <iver_larsen at sil.org>
To: Blue Meeksbay <bluemeeksbay at yahoo.com>; b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Fri, December 17, 2010 8:35:41 AM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] How should one understand I Cor. 11:33?
Since you know English better than me, can you tell me the difference between:
1. So then, my brethren, when you come together to eat, wait for one another.
2. So then, my brethren, when you come together in order to eat, wait for one
another.
Iver Larsen
----- Original Message ----- From: "Blue Meeksbay" <bluemeeksbay at yahoo.com>
To: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: 17. december 2010 18:30
Subject: [B-Greek] How should one understand I Cor. 11:33?
> Dear list,
>
> CAIREIN
>
> I am trying to look at I Cor. 11:33 from every angle. If we focus on the
> infinitive, what is the purpose of EIS TO with purpose infinitive in this
>verse?
> I was admonished by one grammar to not forget Meyer’s dictum that EIS with the
> articular infinitive is always telic. But is not the infinitive telic in this
> verse even without EIS TO?
>
> 1 COR.11:33 hWSTE, ADELFOI MOU,SUNERCOMENOI EIS TO FAGEIN ALLHLOUS EKDECESQE.
>
> So then, my brethren, when you come together to eat, wait for one another.
> (NASB)
>
> 1 COR. 11:33 hWSTE, ADELFOI MOU, SUNERCOMENOI FAGEIN ALLHLOUS
> EKDECESQE.
>
> So then, my brethren, when you come together to eat, wait for one another.
>
> If that is the case, is it simply a matter of style, i.e. another way to say
>the
> same thing? Or could it be added to the simple infinitive to *emphasize* to
the
> reader that their eating is the central reason for their getting together in
>the
> first place?
>
> If this is true, it might shed light on the fact that the DIDACH TWN DWDEKA
> APOSTOLWN considers such an occurrence an imperative.
>
> KATA KURIAKHN DE KURIOU SUNACQENTES KLASATE ARTON KAI EUCARISTHSATE (DIDACHE
> 14:1)
>
> And on the Lord’s day, having been gathered together, break bread and give
> thanks
>
> Secondly, how should we look at the participle? Is it possible that we might
>not
> have a temporal participle at all in this verse, but rather have a causal
> participle?
>
> Therefore, my brethren, since you are assembling together to eat [the Lord’s
> Supper], be sure to wait for one another.
>
> Or, if we do, indeed, have the temporal participle, is it possible that we
>might
> not have a purpose infinitive after all, (in spite of all we said above), but
> rather an infinitive of result ?
>
> Therefore, my brethren, when you assemble together, wait for one another so
>that
> you can eat [the Lord’s Supper].
>
>
> Any help would be appreciated. It seems either view still fits in nicely with
> the context.
>
> Sincerely,
> Blue Harris
>
>
>
> ---
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