[B-Greek] How should one understand I Cor. 11:33?

Blue Meeksbay bluemeeksbay at yahoo.com
Fri Dec 17 13:39:12 EST 2010


Hi Iver,
 
Just as a postscript to my last post…I do think, obviously, we would have a 
difference between number one and number two if we understand in number two 
SUNERCOMENOIas a causal participle. 


1. So then, my brethren, when you come together to eat, wait for one another.

2. So then, my brethren, *since* you come together in order to eat, wait for one 
another.
 
Blue Harris



________________________________
From: Iver Larsen <iver_larsen at sil.org>
To: Blue Meeksbay <bluemeeksbay at yahoo.com>; b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Fri, December 17, 2010 8:35:41 AM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] How should one understand I Cor. 11:33?

Since you know English better than me, can you tell me the difference between:

1. So then, my brethren, when you come together to eat, wait for one another.

2. So then, my brethren, when you come together in order to eat, wait for one 
another.

Iver Larsen

----- Original Message ----- From: "Blue Meeksbay" <bluemeeksbay at yahoo.com>
To: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: 17. december 2010 18:30
Subject: [B-Greek] How should one understand I Cor. 11:33?


> Dear list,
> 
> CAIREIN
> 
> I am trying to look at I Cor. 11:33 from every angle. If we focus on the
> infinitive, what is the purpose of EIS TO with purpose infinitive in this 
>verse?
> I was admonished by one grammar to not forget Meyer’s dictum that EIS with the
> articular infinitive is always telic. But is not the infinitive telic in this
> verse even without EIS TO?
> 
> 1 COR.11:33 hWSTE, ADELFOI MOU,SUNERCOMENOI EIS TO FAGEIN ALLHLOUS EKDECESQE.
> 
> So then, my brethren, when you come together to eat, wait for one another.
> (NASB)
> 
> 1 COR. 11:33 hWSTE, ADELFOI MOU, SUNERCOMENOI FAGEIN ALLHLOUS
> EKDECESQE.
> 
> So then, my brethren, when you come together to eat, wait for one another.
> 
> If that is the case, is it simply a matter of style, i.e. another way to say 
>the
> same thing? Or could it be added to the simple infinitive to *emphasize* to 
the
> reader that their eating is the central reason for their getting together in 
>the
> first place?
> 
> If this is true, it might shed light on the fact that the DIDACH TWN DWDEKA
> APOSTOLWN considers such an occurrence an imperative.
> 
> KATA KURIAKHN DE KURIOU SUNACQENTES KLASATE ARTON KAI EUCARISTHSATE (DIDACHE
> 14:1)
> 
> And on the Lord’s day, having been gathered together, break bread and give
> thanks
> 
> Secondly, how should we look at the participle? Is it possible that we might 
>not
> have a temporal participle at all in this verse, but rather have a causal
> participle?
> 
> Therefore, my brethren, since you are assembling together to eat [the Lord’s
> Supper], be sure to wait for one another.
> 
> Or, if we do, indeed, have the temporal participle, is it possible that we 
>might
> not have a purpose infinitive after all, (in spite of all we said above), but
> rather an infinitive of result ?
> 
> Therefore, my brethren, when you assemble together, wait for one another so 
>that
> you can eat [the Lord’s Supper].
> 
> 
> Any help would be appreciated. It seems either view still fits in nicely with
> the context.
> 
> Sincerely,
> Blue Harris
> 
> 
> 
> ---
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