[B-Greek] Re. Aspect of the Aorist!
Paul F. Evans
PastorPaul1957 at bellsouth.net
Thu Feb 11 11:21:51 EST 2010
Group,
In spite of my fear of raising objections of being tiresome and redundant, I
have a question about the aorist and aspect. It is basically about the
"history" of the grammar. When I first took NT Greek in college 30 years
ago, we used Machen as a text. I remember the aspect of the aorist being
taught rather categorically as defined, specifically punctilliar. However,
modern grammars, Bill Mounce (excellent text book for beginning Greekers)
comes to mind, teach the aspect of the aorist as "undefined." Has there
been a shift in viewpoints in scholarship? I know from intermediate
grammars that there always what appear to be "exceptions" in the aorist
aspect if you take Machen's view seriously. Or maybe I have misread or
misunderstood Machen.
I am curious, because (and I am not raising a theological question), in NT
studies older commentaries often hinge their views on a supposed once-
and-for-all aspect in the aorist.
If the aorist aspect is undefined, how did the notion of a once-for-all
aspect arise in the first place? (assuming the answer to this question is a
grammatical one, albeit with historical overview!)
Pastor Paul Evans
Wilmington First Pentecostal Holiness Church
PastorPaul1957 at bellsouth.net
http://www.wilmingtonfirst.org
More information about the B-Greek
mailing list