[B-Greek] Luke 12:8 [was Luke 13:8 EN EMOI]

George F Somsel gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Sun Jan 10 17:28:24 EST 2010


Moulton has an explanation for this

One further ἐν EN may be noted for its difficulty, and for its bearing on Synoptic questions,—the ὁμολογεῖν ἔν τινιhOMOLOGEIN EN TINI which is common to Mt 10:32and Lk 12:8: this is among the clearest evidences of essentially identical translations used in Mt and Lk. W. F. Moulton (WM283 n.) cites, apparently with approval, Godet’s explanation—“the repose of faith inHim whom it confesses”: so Westcott, quoting Heracleon, who originated this view (Canon5305 n.). Deissmann (In Christo60) quotes Delitzsch’s Hebrew rendering יוֹדֶה בִי, [YoWDeH BiY] and puts it with Mt 3:179:3411:623:21, as an example of a literal translation “mit ängstlicher, die hermeneutische Pedanterie nahelegender Pietät.” Dr Rendel Harris recalls the Græcised translation in Rev 3:5, and gives me Syriac parallels. On the whole, it seems best not to look for justification of this usage in Greek. The agreement of Mt and Lk, in a point
 where accidental coincidence is out of the question, remains the most important element in the whole matter, proving as it does that Luke did not use any knowledge of Aramaic so as to deal independently with the translated Logiathat came to him. 
 
Moulton, J. H. (2006). A Grammar of New Testament Greek, Volume 1: Prolegomena. Vol. 1: 2d ed., with corrections and additions. (104). Edinburgh: T. & T. Clark.
 george
gfsomsel 


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learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth, 
defend the truth till death.


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----- Original Message ----
From: Marilyn Phemister <windmill65 at yahoo.com>
To: B-Greek <B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Sun, January 10, 2010 3:09:48 PM
Subject: [B-Greek] Luke 13:8 EN EMOI

I'm having a little trouble understanding the use of EN with EMOI in 
Luke 13:8:

Λέγω δὲ ὑμῖν, πᾶς ὃς ἂν ὁμολογήσῃ ἐν ἐμοὶ ἔμπροσθεν τῶν ἀνθρώπων, καὶ ὁ 
υἱὸς τοῦ ἀνθρώπου ὁμολογήσει ἐν αὐτῷ ἔμπροσθεν τῶν ἀγγέλων τοῦ θεοῦ
LEGW DE hUMIN, PAS hOS AN hOMOLOGHSHi EN EMOI  EMPROSQEN TWN ANQRWPWN, 
KAI hO hUIOS TOU ANQRWPOU  hOMOLOGHSEI  EN AUTWi EMPROSQEN TWN AGGELWN 
TOU QEOU

It seems to me like it would mean the same thing without EN before EMOI 
or if used with it, the infinitive "to be" would be understood.  Can 
anyone help me understand this better?

Thank you.

Marilyn Phemister

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