[B-Greek] What case does the object of AUQENTEIN take? - 1 Tim 2:12

Mark Lightman lightmanmark at yahoo.com
Sat Jan 16 15:52:09 EST 2010


-- On Sat, 1/16/10, Eric S. Weiss wrote:




<1 Tim 2:12: DIDASKEIN DE GUNAIKI OUK EPITREPW OUDE AUQENTEIN ANDROS 
ALL' EINAI EN HSUCIAi.
 
What case does the object of AUQENTEIN usually take? ANDROS (genitive) here is 
usually translated as the object of AUQENTEIN - i.e., "to take or assume for one's self 
authority over a man."
 
But if the object of AUQENTEIN is usually in the accusative case, then could or would 
1 Timothy 2:12 mean "to take or assume for one's self a man's authority" (i.e., the kind or 
position of authority that a man has)? I.e., does a genitive after AUQENTEIN or 
AUQENTEW function as a descriptive genitive rather than as the object of the infinitival or 
verbal form of AUQENTEW?>
 
Hi, Eric,
 
All we can really say is that this genitive "goes with" the verb.  To be more
precise is to leave behind  the Greek.  Verbs of ruling may take the genitive in
a partitive sense "to be first among men."   I don't permit a women to be
first among the men does sort of mean I don't permit a woman to have
the authority of a man but this also sort of means I don't permit a women
to have authority over a man. To have authority over men
versus to have the authority of a man works well in English but I'm not sure
you can draw that distinction with the Greek in this passage.
 
But to your answer your question, yes, it can mean that, plus a million
other things.
 
 
Mark L
FWSFOROS
Φωσφορος  


      


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