[B-Greek] Forever and ever

Mark Frost mark at buildinghishouse.org
Sun Jun 27 14:31:45 EDT 2010


There is some controversy over the idea of eternal hell, as you know.  Some say that the phrase translated "for ever and ever" in Rev. 19:3 and 20:10 should more accurately be translated as "ages of ages" or to the "end of the age or ages", as a sum of its literal parts, claiming that the translators were effected by an erroneous presupposition more than by the language itself.  Do you all, as Greek experts, know if this is a valid argument, or if the Greek phrase in these verses actually means or could only mean "forever and ever"?  Why did the translators all choose to translate it as "forever and ever"?  Is there some extra-biblical use of this phrase that causes us to know that the combination of these root words means "eternal" rather than just referring to ages?  Please use plain English in answering this post, as I do not read Greek.  Thank you for your expertiese.



Mark Frost

CO



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