[B-Greek] Forever and ever

Eddie Mishoe edmishoe at yahoo.com
Mon Jun 28 23:00:59 EDT 2010


The Hebrew expression can mean "for a long time." However, note that the Levitical Priests were to serve as priests 'forever,' and yet in the NT, we are told that this OT priesthood has become obsolete. I take the forever concepts to mean 'until the end of ages/dispensations.' But there is far more that goes into this translation and understanding than is allowed to be discussed on B-Greek.

Eddie Mishoe

--- On Sun, 6/27/10, Mark Frost <mark at buildinghishouse.org> wrote:

From: Mark Frost <mark at buildinghishouse.org>
Subject: [B-Greek] Forever and ever
To: "Greek Mail List" <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Date: Sunday, June 27, 2010, 2:31 PM

There is some controversy over the idea of eternal hell, as you know.  Some say that the phrase translated "for ever and ever" in Rev. 19:3 and 20:10 should more accurately be translated as "ages of ages" or to the "end of the age or ages", as a sum of its literal parts, claiming that the translators were effected by an erroneous presupposition more than by the language itself.  Do you all, as Greek experts, know if this is a valid argument, or if the Greek phrase in these verses actually means or could only mean "forever and ever"?  Why did the translators all choose to translate it as "forever and ever"?  Is there some extra-biblical use of this phrase that causes us to know that the combination of these root words means "eternal" rather than just referring to ages?  Please use plain English in answering this post, as I do not read Greek.  Thank you for your expertiese.



Mark Frost

CO
---
B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek
B-Greek mailing list
B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org
http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek



      


More information about the B-Greek mailing list