[B-Greek] sigma at end of "porneia(s)" ?
Alex Poulos
apviper at gmail.com
Fri Oct 1 10:48:30 EDT 2010
I bet 1 Cor 7:2 is in mind here:
δια δε τας πορνειας, εκαστος την ιδιον γυναικα εχετω και εκαστη τον εαυτου
ανδρα εχετω.
DIA DE TAS PORNEIAS EKASTOS THN IDION GUNAIKA EXETW KAI EKASTH TON EAUTOU
ANDRA EXETW.
As a gentive, the ς/S is not going to change the word, but a change from the
singular to the plural can change the meaning (here we have a plural
accusative). I don't know that we're talking about huge shift, but there is
a difference.
In the context of the letter, there is a lot of different sexual behavior
going on in Corinth that Paul doesn't approve of. 1 Corinthians 5 and 6
deal largely with sexual behavior that Paul doesn't like (of which there are
various manifestations), so it's not *too* surprising that we have a
plural. However, as I recall, the Majority text has a singular here: δια δε
την πορνειαν, so the plural probably sounded strange in someone's ear along
the way (if the NA27 has the original reading).
In English, the difference is somewhat akin to "But because of sexual
immorality" and "But because of sexual *immoralities*." The latter sounds
kind of funny. Or perhaps Paul intends a substantive, "but because of the
sexually immoral (people)..." It's a tricky passage.
Alex Poulos
Senior - Computer Science
NC State University
On Thu, Sep 30, 2010 at 10:08 PM, George F Somsel <gfsomsel at yahoo.com>wrote:
> You failed to specify a passage so I am unsure to which use you are
> referring.
> I find 12 instances in the NT in which this particular form appears.
> Πορνείας
> PORNEIAS is simply the genetive form of the lemma πορνεία PORNEIA so it
> really
> doesn't alter the meaning of the term. It is as though you were to say in
> English "He reads the book" instead of "His book is being read." "He"
> refers to
> the same person in each case. Another example: "He reads the book" or "He
> is
> the reader of the book." I would suggest that you become acquainted with
> the
> usage of words in different cases so that you may learn why certain cases
> are
> used. Don't expect every word to appear in its dictionary [lemma] form.
>
> george
> gfsomsel
>
>
> … search for truth, hear truth,
> learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth,
> defend the truth till death.
>
>
> - Jan Hus
> _________
>
>
>
>
> ________________________________
> From: John Benson <johncbenson at gmail.com>
> To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Sent: Thu, September 30, 2010 1:51:18 PM
> Subject: [B-Greek] sigma at end of "porneia(s)" ?
>
> A struggling student's questions:
>
> My Dictionary of New Testament Terms has a good explication of "porneia."
> However the text in my interlinear bible with which I am working says
> "porneias" with the ending sigma added. I am unsure if I can simply use the
> definitions of porneia as if the s wasn't there.
>
> What difference does it make? Why are there two forms?
>
> Thanks for the kind attention.
>
> John Benson
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