[B-Greek] What should a lexicon include?
Randall Buth
randallbuth at gmail.com
Fri Oct 15 04:21:06 EDT 2010
Yes, aorist infinitive is preferred, except for those verbs that are
PARATATIKH (EINAI) or PARAKEIMENH (EIDENAI) only.
The reason for the aorist infinitive is psycholinguistic:
the aorist infinitive is the most 'unmarked', 'none-of-the-above'
forms of the verb. A starting point for thinking. Like the difference
between 'to do' POIHSAI and 'to be doing' POIEIN.
Both forms are necessary on the lemma line because the
PARATATIKH form records the vowel pattern for 'contract
verbs'.
I typically refer to a verb as POIHSAI POIHSAI POIEIN in
order to subliminally reinforce the aorist forms in relation to
a PARATATIKH summary form.
DOYNAI DOYNAI -- DIDONAI
ERRWSQE
IWANHS
On Thu, Oct 14, 2010 at 2:11 PM, Carl Conrad <cwconrad2 at mac.com> wrote:
> That's a question that I raised in response to Micheal Palmer's blog note
> that he had updated the "online lexicon" for his online Hellenistic Greek
> course. Now he's responded to my question and it appears that we may
> have a nice dialogue on some significant issues in Hellenistic Greek
> lexicography. In a sense this is a followup to our recent discussion of
> the Barclay Newman UBS NT "lexicon" that I would prefer to call a
> glossary. A big question here is how verbs, in particular, should be
> lemmatized. Randall Buth has suggested, for instance, that the lemma
> should be the aorist infinitive; I raise additional questions., as does
> Stephen Carlson and Michael Aubrey. It seems to me that there's grist
> for further discussion in this forum at least as well as in the comments
> section there. Here's the URL:
>
> http://greek-language.com/grklinguist/?p=447
>
> Carl W. Conrad
> Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
>
>
>
>
--
Randall Buth, PhD
www.biblicalulpan.org
randallbuth at gmail.com
Biblical Language Center
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