[B-Greek] Aorist Subjunctive in 1 Jn 1:9

Carl Conrad cwconrad2 at mac.com
Sat Apr 2 06:48:34 EDT 2011


On Apr 2, 2011, at 6:44 AM, Renwick Preston wrote:

> Why is the word for forgive in this verse an aorist?

It's a lot easier to answer this sort of a question if we have the text before us:

1John 1:9 ἐὰν ὁμολογῶμεν τὰς ἁμαρτίας ἡμῶν, πιστός ἐστιν καὶ δίκαιος, ἵνα ἀφῇ ἡμῖν τὰς ἁμαρτίας καὶ καθαρίσῃ ἡμᾶς ἀπὸ πάσης ἀδικίας. 
[1John 1:9 EAN hOMOLOGWMEN TAS hAMARTIAS hHMWN, PISTOS ESTIN KAI DIKAIOS, hINA AFHi hHMIN TAS hAMARTIAS KAI KAQARISHi hHMAS APO PASHS ADIKIAS. ]

I would think it's because God's forgiveness is thought of as a single act rather than as an ongoing one.


Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)






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