[B-Greek] Question concerning accents
Robert Stump
robertstump at gmail.com
Tue Feb 1 00:16:23 EST 2011
I want to thank everyone again for the sage advice I've received. As
I mentioned before I am working through Rainey's inductive NT Method.
And now I am now also supplementing with Machen's Begginer's Greek.
Before working through Machen's lesson on accents I had largely copied
them by rote, often overlooked them, and never gave them much thought.
Having worked through it, I think I am getting the idea, but I now
have questions for which I could not find answers elsewhere.
1) Do participles follow the pattern of verbs (that is persistence
toward the antepenult), or the pattern of nouns (persistence toward
the Nom. Sing.'s accent).
2)Does a compound verb push its accent into the preposition? I have
seen KATELABEN accented on the antepenult in John 1:5, but I thought
this might be caused by the augment and so only to appear to fall back
into the preposition. I thought this might be confirmed by KATABAINON
being accented on the penult in 1:32, but not knowing the answer to my
first question I couldn't answer the second.
3)Is there something special about FANEROQH in John 1:31? I would
have thought it would take an accute on the penult, but the text shows
instead circumflex on the ultima.
4)I noticed that the accute ultima does not change to a grave in a
number of cases when followed by an enclitic. Is this a hard fast
rule?
5)Why do a number of words have mutliple accents? (hOUTOS, circumflex
penult, accute ultima, and EKEINOS, in 1:38 when followed by the
enclitic MOI, but not in 1:8 without the enclitic). I was thinking
hOUTOS was likely a compound which would be some sort of explanation,
but I can't make sense of EKEINOS.
Per sanguine agni,
Robert Stump
Seminarian
FL, USA
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