[B-Greek] Mark 16:9 PRWI PRWTHi SABBATOU construes with ANASTAS or EFANH?

George F Somsel gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Thu Feb 3 09:32:50 EST 2011


If we agree, according to b-greek protocol, to avoid the subject of textual 
criticism here, it should be noted that the word σάββατον SABBATON appears 12 
times in 11 verses of Mark.  Of these occurrences all but that in 16.2 and 
possibly 16.9 refer to the Sabbath day.  It would appear likely, however, that 
in 16.2 it definitely is used to designate not the Sabbath day but rather is 
used to signify the week (which happens to be one of the usages of σάββατον 
SABBATON).  To me it also appears that σάββατον in 16.9 refers to the week 
rather than to the Sabbath day.  It should be noted that in 16.2 μιᾷ MIAi is 
used to designate the first day of the week whereas here in 16.9 the word used 
is πρώτῃ PRWTHi.  This could be an argument in defence of understanding the 
designation as referring to the first hour of the day rather than to the first 
day of the week whereas in 16.2 the understanding would be "on day one of the 
week."  I nevertheless feel constrained to understand πρώτῃ PRWTHi in 16.9 as 
equivalent to μιᾷ MIAi in 16.2 since otherwise πρωῒ would appear somewhat 
redundant -- is it early in the first hour?  I think it more likely that it is 
early on the first day of the week.          


The question as originally framed, however, was not regarding the understanding 
of πρώτῃ PRWTHi but regarding whether πρωῒ  πρώτῃ σαββάτου PRWÏ PRWTHi 
SABBATOU construes with ἀναστὰς ANASTAS or with ἐφάνη EFANH.  It would seem 
likely that by position it would construe with ἀναστὰς ANASTAS rather than 
with ἐφάνη EFANH.  What is being conveyed thus is that the resurrection is to 
be conceived as occurring on the first day of the week rather than that the 
appearance to the women took place on the first day of the week.

 george
gfsomsel 


… search for truth, hear truth, 
learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth, 
defend the truth till death.


- Jan Hus
_________ 




________________________________
From: Nikolaos Adamou <ntgreekreader at gmail.com>
To: Carl Conrad <cwconrad2 at mac.com>
Cc: B-Greek <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Thu, February 3, 2011 5:12:45 AM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Mark 16:9 PRWI PRWTHi SABBATOU construes with ANASTAS or 
EFANH?

KJV with Strong's
Now when Jesus was risen early the first day of the week he appeared
first to Mary Magdalene out of whom he had cast seven devils

Ἀναστὰς δὲ πρωῒ πρώτῃ σαββάτου ἐφάνη πρῶτον Μαρίᾳ τῇ Μαγδαληνῇ ...
ANASTAS DE PRWI PRWTHi SABBATOU EFANH PRWTON MARIAi THi MAGDALHNHi

I would agree with Robertson, making specific when He appeared first to whom.
Sabath is not the first but the last day of the week.
As of πρώτῃ I think refers the hour, making specific that was not
later in the morning but the first hour of the morning.

On Thu, Feb 3, 2011 at 6:23 AM, Carl Conrad <cwconrad2 at mac.com> wrote:
> B-Greekers:
>
> I rejected the following message originally on grounds that it was a 
>translation question posed by a poster who doesn't read Biblical Greek. After 
>giving it some thought, however, I think that the question itself is worthy of 
>some discussion by you B-Greekers. Here's the text:
>
> Ἀναστὰς δὲ πρωῒ πρώτῃ σαββάτου ἐφάνη πρῶτον Μαρίᾳ τῇ Μαγδαληνῇ ...
> [ANASTAS DE PRWI PRWTHi SABBATOU EFANH PRWTON MARIAi THi MAGDALHNHi ... ]
>
> While it seems most likely to me that the two adverbial elements here, PRWI 
>PRWTHi SABBATOU and PRWTON, must construe respectively: PRWI PRWTHi SABBATOU 
>with the initial participle ANASTAS, PRWTON with the finite verb EFANH, A. T. 
>Robertson has argued ("Word Pictures") that PRWI PRWTHi SABBATOU could 
>conceivably be construed with EFANH, and I note that at least a couple versions 
>either convert the Greek text as ambiguous (NET) or do in fact read PRWI PRWTHi 
>SABBATOU with EFANH (Peterson's Message). If list-members take that possibility 
>seriously, what reasons might be offered in defense of its probability?
>
> Carl W. Conrad
> Co-Chair, B-Greek List
> Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
> ==========
> From: Boele Gerkes <bjgerkes at me.com>
> Date: February 3, 2011 5:11:37 AM EST
> To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: Newbie: question about Mark 16:9
>
>
> Hi all,
>
> (Boele Gerkes, 47, from the Netherlands)
>
> Just joined the list and did that to try to find the answer to a question I 
>have about the mentioned passage in Mark 16:9 which I can not find an answer for 
>in all the commentaries I have (they all focus on the question if Mark wrote 
>verse 9-20 or not... :-))
> I also have to say that I have no knowledge to Greek at all, but that's why I 
>ask here :-)
>
> My question is this: the translation of this 9th verse is in most Bibles like 
>this:
> ASV: Now when Jesus was risen early the first day of the week, he appeared 
>first to Mary Magdalene, out of whom he had cast seven devils.
> King James: Now when he was risen early on the first day of the week, he 
>appeared first to Mary Magdalene, from whom he had cast out seven demons.
> And also various Dutch translations give the same idea, i.e. that the time-part 
>of this verse (early the first day of the week) is linked to Jesus' ressurection 
>rather then the appearence to Mary.
>
> My question is: is there a possibility that the "early on the first day of the 
>week" can be attached to the first appearence to Mary, instead of the 
>ressurection of Christ? Are there any Greek language related objections for 
>that?
>
> In other words: why is the comma placed after "week" and not after "risen"? Is 
>there a definite reason for that? If not, is it legitimate to place the comma 
>after "risen"? It's not a theological question but a pure Greek grammar/style 
>question.
>
> I have a lot of bible commentaries and no one says anything about it, except 
>one: the Robertson's Word Pictures. This one writes about it, and actually even 
>about my specific question:
>
> "When he had risen early on the first day of the week (anastas proi protei 
>sabbatou). It is probable that this note of time goes with "risen" (anastas), 
>though it makes good sense with "appeared" (ephane)..." Italic from me.
>
> Well, I hope to get some insight on this question here.
>
> Thanks in advance!!
>
> Boele
>
>
>
>
>
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