[B-Greek] Gal 2.16 Rom 3.2 No flesh is justified

Carl Conrad cwconrad2 at mac.com
Mon Feb 14 08:22:35 EST 2011


On Feb 14, 2011, at 8:14 AM, Richard Smith wrote:

> I have been pretty much convinced that OU DIKAIWQHSETAI PASA SARX, should be understood as "No one is justified" rather than as "Everyone is not justified (some are)." And that the expression was generally how the idea that "absolutely no one" would be emphatically expressed in Greek idiom. 
> 
> I was reading in David DeSilva this morning, and found this 
> 
> "that basis (the basis for the universality of the Gospel message) is not Torah, the observance of which had functioned to keep Jew separate from Gentile for a limited time, for "all flesh shall not be justified by works of law" which only pertains to Israel." 
> 
> He seems to understand OU DIKAIWQHSETAI PASA SARX as meaning "Everyone is not justified," that Torah had brought about two classes of people. Under Torah and not under Torah. 
> 
> Leaving theology aside, which is the better way to understand the Greek expression linguistically. 
> 
> Richard Smith 


This is a citation from the LXX; the Greek text follows Hebrew idiom with PAS = Heb. "KOL". Cf. BDAG s.v. PAS, 1.A.α.
There's really no question here: PASA SARX means, taking the negation into account, "nobody."

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)






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