[B-Greek] Imperatival ἵνα in John 9:3?
spencerj76 at aol.com
spencerj76 at aol.com
Fri Feb 18 12:08:00 EST 2011
18 Feb 2011
Friends:
In John 9:3, the translation of hINA ἵνα as imperatival does not seem to be as clearly imperatival as the
examples given in Daniel B. Wallace, "Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics" (pp. 476-477). Also, there's the context.
Jesus is answering a question as to "why" this blindness has occurred. It seems to me more to the point of the question that
Jesus would give a simple answer as to the purpose of the occurrence rather than an imperative statement concerning what ought
to happen.
Best wishes,
Jeremy Spencer
-----Original Message-----
From: Kevin W. Woodruff <cierpke at prodigy.net>
To: Biblical Greek List <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Fri, Feb 18, 2011 10:16 am
Subject: [B-Greek] Imperatival ἵνα in John 9:3?
In John 9:3, Jesus says, οὔτε οὗτος ἥμαρτεν οὔτε οἱ γονεῖς αὐτοῦ, ἀλλ᾽ ἵνα
ανερωθῇ τὰ ἔργα τοῦ θεοῦ ἐν αὐτῷ.
Greg Boyd and Nigel Turner maintain that the ἵνα should be understood as an
imperatival ἵνα" in order to avoid having Jesus say that the blindness was "for
he purpose" of revealing God's works. The ἵνα would then read something like
neither this one or his parents sinned, but let the the works of God be
anifest in him."
I can't seem to find anyone or any translation that agrees with this.
What say ye?
Kevin
Prof. Kevin W. Woodruff, M.Div., M.S.I.S.
ibrary Director/Reference Librarian, Assistant Professor of Bible, Greek,
heological Bibliography and Research
ennessee Temple University/Temple Baptist Seminary, 1815 Union Ave.
hattanooga, Tennessee 37404, United States of America
23/493-4252 (office) 423/698-9447 (home) 423/493-4497 (FAX)
ierpke at prodigy.net http://pages.prodigy.net/cierpke/woodruff.htm
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