[B-Greek] Imperatival ??? in John 9:3?
Brian Abasciano
bvabasciano at gmail.com
Fri Feb 18 14:02:35 EST 2011
[Woops, I forgot to put the proper subject in my first attempt at sending
this message. Here it is again.]
Bryant's judgment seems a bit hasty. hINA can be used imperatively. I don't
agree that it is imperatival here however. Nor do I think it likely that it
is telic. I think Margaret Sim probably has it right that hINA is here used
to indicate what Jesus knew would come to pass in this situation ("A
Relevance Theoretic Approach to the Particle hINA in Koine Greek," p. 89). I
would say that this is something akin to an ecbatic (i.e. result) hINA.
(Note that an ecbatic hINA is used in the preceding verse in the disciples'
question, which Jesus is answering. The hINA of v. 3 seems to
answer/correpsond to the hINA of v. 2.) Sim translates John 9:3 thus: "Jesus
replied, ‘Neither this man nor his parents sinned, but the works of God must
be
revealed in him.’" This is not far off from Boyd's and Turner's view, though
it is different. It seems unfair to suggest that Boyd and Turner are letting
their theology overrule the text.
God bless,
Brian Abasciano
*************************
Message: 9
Date: Fri, 18 Feb 2011 09:59:12 -0800
From: "Bryant J. Williams III" <bjwvmw at com-pair.net>
To: "Kevin W. Woodruff" <cierpke at prodigy.net>, "Biblical Greek List"
<b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Imperatival ??? in John 9:3?
Message-ID: <010301cbcf95$938c18e0$42d75142 at oemcomputer>
Content-Type: text/plain; charset="utf-8"
Dear Kevin,
Their theology is overruling the text.
En Xristwi,
Rev. Bryant J. Williams III
----- Original Message -----
From: "Kevin W. Woodruff" <cierpke at prodigy.net>
To: "Biblical Greek List" <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Friday, February 18, 2011 7:16 AM
Subject: [B-Greek] Imperatival ??? in John 9:3?
> In John 9:3, Jesus says, ???? ????? ??????? ???? ?? ?????? ?????, ???? ???
???????? ?? ???? ??? ???? ?? ????.
>
> Greg Boyd and Nigel Turner maintain that the ??? should be understood as
> an
"imperatival ???" in order to avoid having Jesus say that the blindness was
"for
the purpose" of revealing God's works. The ??? would then read something
like
"neither this one or his parents sinned, but let the the works of God be
manifest in him."
>
> I can't seem to find anyone or any translation that agrees with this.
>
> What say ye?
>
> Kevin
>
> Prof. Kevin W. Woodruff, M.Div., M.S.I.S.
> Library Director/Reference Librarian, Assistant Professor of Bible, Greek,
Theological Bibliography and Research
> Tennessee Temple University/Temple Baptist Seminary, 1815 Union Ave.
> Chattanooga, Tennessee 37404, United States of America
> 423/493-4252 (office) 423/698-9447 (home) 423/493-4497 (FAX)
> Cierpke at prodigy.net http://pages.prodigy.net/cierpke/woodruff.htm
> ---
> B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek
> B-Greek mailing list
> B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek
>
More information about the B-Greek
mailing list