[B-Greek] Imperatival ἵνα in John 9:3?

Iver Larsen iver_larsen at sil.org
Sat Feb 19 00:17:34 EST 2011


----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Mark Lightman" <lightmanmark at yahoo.com>
To: <spencerj76 at aol.com>; <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: 19. februar 2011 03:04
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Imperatival ἵνα in John 9:3?


> Jeremy wrote:
>
> < Also, there's the context.
> Jesus is answering a question as to "why" this blindness has occurred. It 
> seems
> to me more to the point of the question that
> Jesus would give a simple answer as to the purpose of the occurrence rather 
> than
> an imperative statement concerning what ought
> to happen.>
>
> I agree, Jeremy.  If the hINA in the question to Jesus in verse one is a 
> purpose
> clause, why would this not be the case here?
>
> Mark L

Although hINA was primarily used to indicate purpose in Classical Greek, the 
situation had changed in Koine Greek as Carl Conrad and others on this list have 
said many times before. (Search the archives for hINA).  If you look 
specifically at John's Greek, hINA is the default result connector, with hWSTE 
being used only once for a special, surprising result. hINA may indicate 
purpose, but that can only be determined by context.

Louw and Nida have four senses for hINA:
  a in order to: 89.59
  b as a result: 89.49
  c that: 90.22
  d namely: 91.15

BDAG has 3 major usages and a special fourth one. The three are:

① marker to denote purpose, aim, or goal: in order that, that, final sense
② marker of objective: that. Very oft. the final mng. is greatly weakened or 
disappears altogether. In this case the ἵνα-constr. serves as a substitute for 
an inf. that supplements a verb, or an acc. w. inf.
③ marker serving as substitute for the inf. of result: so that (‘ecbatic’ or 
consecutive use of ἵνα: B-D-F §391, 5; Mlt. 206–9; Rob. 997–99...)

There is no hINA in verse one, and the hINA in verse 2 is clearly indicating 
result (and BDAG puts it under ③). It makes no sense that the person sinned for 
the purpose of becoming blind nor that his parents sinned for the purpose of 
making their child blind. So why would the hINA in v. 3 not indicate result? I 
find Sim's notion of "representation of a representation" difficult to 
understand. To me, it is easier to think of hINA as a broad consecutive marker 
not unlike English "that", and let the context show whether it indicates 
purpose, result or content.

In 9:3 we have ALL' hINA. This construction is an ellipsis and always calls for 
some information to be supplied from the previous context.

BDAG has this to say about it:
ⓕ ἵνα is used elliptically ἀλλʼ ἵνα "but this has happened that", where the verb 
to be supplied must be inferred fr. the context ... ἀλλʼ (ἐγένετο τυφλὸς) ἵνα 
φανερωθῇ J 9:3 ALL' (EGENETO TUFLOS) hINA FANERWQHi.

That he has become blind is a fact. It has happened. Jesus did not agree with 
the common assumption that his disciples voiced, namely that his blindness was a 
result of sinning.  However - ALLA - now that it has happened, as a result of 
this being the case, the miraculous work of God can be made manifest in the 
situation.

It is difficult to handle this construction in a literal translation, so most 
English versions are more or less misleading or at best obscure. CEV has made 
the meaning clear, because its translation philosophy allows for a less obscure 
rendering of the intended meaning: "But because of his blindness, you will see 
God work a miracle for him."
One might have translated "the works of God are to be made manifest to him" as: 
"...he will see God working a miracle." This would underscore a major theme of 
the section: "The blind will see, and the seeing are blind." (9:39-41)

Iver Larsen

> ________________________________
> From: "spencerj76 at aol.com" <spencerj76 at aol.com>
> To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Sent: Fri, February 18, 2011 10:08:00 AM
> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Imperatival ἵνα in John 9:3?
>
>
> 18 Feb 2011
>
> Friends:
>
> In John 9:3, the translation of hINA ἵνα as imperatival does not seem to be as
> clearly imperatival as the
>
> examples given in Daniel B. Wallace, "Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics" (pp.
> 476-477). Also, there's the context.
> Jesus is answering a question as to "why" this blindness has occurred. It 
> seems
> to me more to the point of the question that
> Jesus would give a simple answer as to the purpose of the occurrence rather 
> than
> an imperative statement concerning what ought
> to happen.
>
> Best wishes,
> Jeremy Spencer
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: Kevin W. Woodruff <cierpke at prodigy.net>
> To: Biblical Greek List <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
> Sent: Fri, Feb 18, 2011 10:16 am
> Subject: [B-Greek] Imperatival ἵνα in John 9:3?
>
>
> In John 9:3, Jesus says, οὔτε οὗτος ἥμαρτεν οὔτε οἱ γονεῖς αὐτοῦ, ἀλλ᾽ ἵνα
> ανερωθῇ τὰ ἔργα τοῦ θεοῦ ἐν αὐτῷ.
> Greg Boyd and Nigel Turner maintain that the ἵνα should be understood as an
> imperatival ἵνα" in order to avoid having Jesus say that the blindness was 
> "for
> he purpose" of revealing God's works. The ἵνα would then read something like
> neither this one or his parents sinned, but let the the works of God be
> anifest in him."
> I can't seem to find anyone or any translation that agrees with this.
> What say ye?
> Kevin
> Prof. Kevin W. Woodruff, M.Div., M.S.I.S.




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