[B-Greek] Revisiting John 9:3
Blue Meeksbay
bluemeeksbay at yahoo.com
Sat Feb 26 18:38:58 EST 2011
Hi Mark and George,
Thanks to you both.
BTW Mark, I found the *ALL᾽ hINA* phrase 21 times in the LXX/GNT. Of those 21
times, (not counting the passage before us), it precedes the main verb 5 times,
(or at least IMO – some may disagree). Four of those times is in the Gospel of
John (Jn. 1:31; 13:18; 14:31; 15:25), and the last example is in Acts 4:17.
Thanks again, Blue Harris
________________________________
From: Mark Lightman <lightmanmark at yahoo.com>
To: Blue Meeksbay <bluemeeksbay at yahoo.com>; b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Sat, February 26, 2011 1:00:09 PM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Revisiting John 9:3
Hi, Blue,
I like your take very much and I see nothing in the Greek that would argue
against it. I don't see the ALLA in verse 3 as a problem. Jesus is just sort
of changing the subject. Some of the theological difficulties with the
traditional understanding of the verse that Margaret S. raises go away with your
analysis.
I'm not sure how common or uncommon it is to have a purpose/result clause come
before the main verb, but there is nothing common about John's Greek or John's
Jesus.
Mark L
Φωσφορος
FWSFOROS MARKOS
________________________________
From: Blue Meeksbay <bluemeeksbay at yahoo.com>
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Sat, February 26, 2011 12:04:45 PM
Subject: [B-Greek] Revisiting John 9:3
Sorry, I do not know why sometimes my posts get turned topsy-turvy. I will try
again.
JOHN 9:3-6 APEKRIQH IHSOUS• OUTE hOUTOS hHMARTEN OUTE hOI GONEIS AUTOU. ALL᾽
hINA FANERWQHi TA ERGA TOU QEOU EN AUTWi, EME DEI ERGAZESQAI TA ERGA TOU
PEMYANTOS ME hEWS hHMERA ESTIN• ERCETAI NUX, hOTE OUDEIS DUNATAI ERGAZESQAI.
hOTAN EN TWi KOSMWi W, FWS EIMI TOU KOSMOU. TAUTA EIPWN, EPTUSEN CAMAI, KAI
EPOIHSEN PHLON EK TOU PTUSMATOS, KAI EPECRISEN TON PHLON EPI TOUS OFQALMOUS TOU
TUFLOU (BYZ)
Forgive me if this is a silly question, but one cannot learn if one does not ask
questions. I realize this might be awkward, but why cannot we construe verse 4
to be the main clause for ALL᾽ hINA FANERWQHi TA ERGA TOU QEOU EN AUTWi ? This
way one would take *ALL᾽ hINA...* as a result clause. It would then read
something like this –
Jesus answered, "Neither this man nor his parents sinned! Nevertheless, so
that the works of God might be fully shown in him, it is necessary for me to
work, (while it is day), the work of the one who sent me, (for when the night
comes no one will be able to work). As long as I am in the world, I am the light
of the world. Having said these things, he spit on the ground and made clay out
of the saliva… etc.
Or,
Jesus answered, "Neither this man nor his parents sinned! Nevertheless, so
that the works of God might be revealed in him, it becomes essential for me to
work the work of the one who sent me while it is still day, (for when the night
comes no one will be able to work). As long as I am in the world, I am the light
of the world. Having said these things, he spit on the ground and made clay out
of the saliva… etc.
Since no one has understood it this way, I assume I am forgetting something.
Blue Harris
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