[B-Greek] 1 John 4:2 and 2 John 7
Leonard Jayawardena
leonardj at live.com
Sat Jan 1 00:05:43 EST 2011
I have now replied to this objection.
Leonard Jayawardena
Date: Fri, 31 Dec 2010 20:20:44 -0800
From: gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] 1 John 4:2 and 2 John 7
To: lightmanmark at yahoo.com; cwconrad2 at mac.com
CC: leonardj at live.com; iver_larsen at sil.org; b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
So, If you can, then you SHOULD?
george
gfsomsel
. search for truth, hear truth,
learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth,
defend the truth till death.
- Jan Hus
_________
From: Mark Lightman <lightmanmark at yahoo.com>
To: George F Somsel <gfsomsel at yahoo.com>; Carl Conrad <cwconrad2 at mac.com>
Cc: Leonard Jayawardena <leonardj at live.com>; iver_larsen at sil.org; b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Fri, December 31, 2010 4:34:25 PM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] 1 John 4:2 and 2 John 7
The short answer, George, is that we separate Ιησουν from Χριστον only in these two verses because these are the only ones where you CAN separate them.
And yes, you have summarized quite well the difference in the meanings of the two ways to construe the verses. The reason why I like this thread is that the question is not just a formal one but may have something to do with the history of doctrine. NET may be overreacting to a few centuries of finding 2nd century heresies everywhere in the NT.
Mark L
FWSFOROS MARKOS
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