[B-Greek] Use of TO with Infinitive
Oun Kwon
kwonbbl at gmail.com
Fri Jan 7 20:51:27 EST 2011
On Fri, Jan 7, 2011 at 12:23 PM, Blue Meeksbay <bluemeeksbay at yahoo.com> wrote:
>
<clipped>
> Thus my conclusion that FAGEIN should be understood as a purpose infinitive in
> verse 20.
>
> On the other hand, if the only purpose infinitive of FAGEIN in the section is
> found in verse 33, then it seems the understanding of the RSV and the NET would
> be correct for then it would explain why Paul would change the simple infinitive
> FAGEIN of verse 20 into a clear purpose infinitive in verse 33 with the
> addition of EIS TO, thereby showing your conclusion, that the infinitive in
> verse 20 was a *substantive in a nominal clause with OUK ESTI.*
>
> As George S. always says, *Context is king.* The problem, however, is that
> sometimes context can lead us into two different directions, each equally legit,
> (as seems to be the case here), that is, unless there is a specific grammatical
> rule that would prohibit one of the directions…thus my enquiry into the reason
> for the change to the articular infinitive.
>
<clipped>
Speaking of context, I like to keep the contiguity of the text keeping
v. 20 and v. 33 connected under the theme about the agape-meal in the
Corinthian church with vv. 21-22 Paul detailing the problem in their
behavior as he observed; and vv. 23-32 as interpolation about the
Lord's Supper itself.
My paraphrase:
11:20
When you come together for the same purpose [of agape-meal]
—as I see —
what happens is, it’s not eating the Lord’s supper as such.
...
...
11:33
Consequently my brethren, when yoů come together to eat [for
agape-feast], take turn.
Oun Kwon
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