[B-Greek] SATAN in LXX

Allen Rhoades allen.rhoades at nycap.rr.com
Sun Jan 9 21:58:44 EST 2011


When I look at the CCAT entire Septuagint  I see "satan"  used only 
twice, both  in the 3 Reigns  11:14; the other twenty two times were 
"diabolos"

I understand that the CCAT is not the apparatus of the Göttingen 
Septuagint  but what are the two  Leviticus references for Satan?


*Sept* Reference 	Accented 	AccentedLatin 	Parsing1 	Parsing2 	Lemma
1/3Kgs 11:14 	σαταν 	SATAN 	N 	ASM 	SATAN
1/3Kgs 11:14 	σαταν 	SATAN 	N 	NSM 	SATAN




*Sept* Reference 	Accented 	AccentedLatin 	Parsing1 	Parsing2 	Lemma
1Chr 21:1 	διαβολος 	DIA/BOLOS 	N2 	NSM 	DIA/BOLOS
Esth 7:4 	διαβολος 	DIA/BOLOS 	N2 	NSM 	DIA/BOLOS
Esth 8:1 	διαβόλῳ 	DIABO/LW| 	N2 	DSM 	DIA/BOLOS
Job 1:6 	διαβολος 	DIA/BOLOS 	N2 	NSM 	DIA/BOLOS
Job 1:7 	διαβόλῳ 	DIABO/LW| 	N2 	DSM 	DIA/BOLOS
Job 1:7 	διαβολος 	DIA/BOLOS 	N2 	NSM 	DIA/BOLOS
Job 1:9 	διαβολος 	DIA/BOLOS 	N2 	NSM 	DIA/BOLOS
Job 1:12 	διαβόλῳ 	DIABO/LW| 	N2 	DSM 	DIA/BOLOS
Job 1:12 	διαβολος 	DIA/BOLOS 	N2 	NSM 	DIA/BOLOS
Job 2:1 	διαβολος 	DIA/BOLOS 	N2 	NSM 	DIA/BOLOS
Job 2:2 	διαβόλῳ 	DIABO/LW| 	N2 	DSM 	DIA/BOLOS
Job 2:2 	διαβολος 	DIA/BOLOS 	N2 	NSM 	DIA/BOLOS
Job 2:3 	διάβολον 	DIA/BOLON 	N2 	ASM 	DIA/BOLOS
Job 2:4 	διαβολος 	DIA/BOLOS 	N2 	NSM 	DIA/BOLOS
Job 2:6 	διαβόλῳ 	DIABO/LW| 	N2 	DSM 	DIA/BOLOS
Job 2:7 	διαβολος 	DIA/BOLOS 	N2 	NSM 	DIA/BOLOS
Ps 108:6 	διαβολος 	DIA/BOLOS 	N2 	NSM 	DIA/BOLOS
Zech 3:1 	διαβολος 	DIA/BOLOS 	N2 	NSM 	DIA/BOLOS
Zech 3:2 	διάβολον 	DIA/BOLON 	N2 	ASM 	DIA/BOLOS
Zech 3:2 	διάβολε 	DIA/BOLE 	N2 	VSM 	DIA/BOLOS
1Mac 1:36 	διάβολον 	DIA/BOLON 	N2 	ASM 	DIA/BOLOS





On 1/8/2011 8:33 AM, Ken Penner wrote:
> Other verses that may be of interest for this topic, from the apparatus of the Göttingen Septuagint:
>
> Lev. 19.19 M has SATAN.
> Lev. 22.22.
> Zach. 3.1 in manuscript 86 has KAI hO SATAN, and SyH has SATAN.
> Iob 1.6a Aquila has SATAN instead of DIABOLOS.
> Iob 2.3 the SyH, Alexandrinus, group 1 of the Lucianic manuscripts, and Chrysostom add PROS TON SATANAN.
> Iob 40.16a SATAN in some patristic witnesses.
>
> As Al said, it is of interest that the translator transcribes his text exactly. But I do think that SATAN in 3 Reigns is significant precisely BECAUSE the translator "withholds his understanding of the Hebrew word." The word would have stood out to a Greek reader because it was foreign. How often does this translator transcribe rather than translate?
>
> Ken
>
>
> Ken M. Penner, Ph.D.
> Greek, Hebrew, Aramaic vocabulary memorization software:
> http://purl.org/net/kmpenner/flash/
> kpenner at stfx.ca
>
>
>
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org [mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Jeff Smelser
> Sent: Friday, January 07, 2011 8:24 PM
> To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: [B-Greek] SATAN in LXX
>
> In the LXX, why is it that "SATAN," merely a transliteration of the
> Hebrew, is used in 3 Kings (=1 Kings) 11:14 (and also in vs. 23 in C.
> Alexandrinus) where the context simply refers to enemies or adversaries?
> I think the same question can perhaps be asked of Sir. 21:27, where I
> don't see a compelling reason to suppose the text has the devil in view.
> Why wasn't the Hebrew translated into Greek in these passages?
>
> 3 Ki. 11:14    Καὶ ἤγειρεν κύριος σαταν τῷ Σαλωμων
> KAI HGEIREN KURIOS SATAN TWi SALWMWN
> And the Lord raised adversaries against Solomon
>
> καὶ ἦσαν σαταν τῷ Ισραηλ πάσας τὰς ἡμέρας Σαλωμων
> KAI HSAN SATAN TWi ISRAEL PASAS TAS hHMERAS SALWMWN
> and they were adversaries against Israel all the days of Solomon
>
> Sir. 21:27
> ἐν τῷ καταρᾶσθαι ἀσεβῆ τὸν σατανᾶν αὐτὸς καταρᾶται τὴν ἑαυτοῦ ψυχήν.
> EN TWi KATARASQAI ASEBH TON SATANAN AUTOS KATARATAI THN hEAUTOU YUCHN.
> An ungodly man, in cursing the adversary, curses his own soul
>
> The fact that the word wasn't translated into Greek would seemingly
> suggest the translators had the devil in view. But this seems strange
> especially given that when the Devil is clearly in view, the Hebrew for
> adversary is translated by the Greek DIABOLOS.
>
> The only thing I can imagine is that the translators saw Solomon's
> adversaries as acting at the behest of the devil, and that by that time,
> for them the Greek transliteration SATAN had come to be a name for the
> devil. But if that's the explanation, why is it only used in 1 Ki. 11
> and Sir. 21? Why not in passages much more obviously referring to the
> devil, e.g. Job 1, Zech 3?  And furthermore, the context in 3 Ki. 11:14
> (LXX) requires that we understand indeclinable SATANto be plural in both
> instances. In the first part of the verse in the LXX, two adversaries
> are mentioned, and in the last part of the verse, it says HSAN SATAN. So
> given that the LXX points to plural SATAN, it seems difficult to argue
> that the translators had the Devil (singular) in view.
>
> So then again, why was the word merely transliterated?
>
> Jeff Smelser
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