No subject
Tue May 3 10:41:24 EDT 2011
helpful. They are postulated and you can say that it is not so. And then?
Classical philology provides a different proceeding: after having done an
elaborate description of syntactical features giving full data (not only
selective material illustrating exactly the point you want to prove)
cautious qualifications may be given always based on that data. Then (only=
then) a judgment may be acceptable, because everybody is enabled to
compare that with the data given.
Sorry, but the discussion about *good* and *bad* Greek is seriously
problematic, e.g. 2 Peter has got complex sentence structure, rich
vocabulary, a selective usage of prepositions, conjunctions, and pronouns,=
even if there are redundant features and stylistically embarrassing
passages (this refers more to content than to style). I do not claim that
it is written in *perfect* Greek (whatever that is). Once Reincke coined
the phrase that 2 Peter is a perfect example of Asianic style, which is
troublesome as well (what is that exactly? Shouldn=B4t we first of all tak=
e
a look into the works of so-called or potential Asianic writers -
Hermogenes and the like - to find out more? Cicero brought up the
denomination himself, but does not hold Asianism as *stylistically bad*
distinguishing between two forms; are the double-expressions in 2 Peter
really a feature of redundant style, of repeated hendiadyoin, or would it
be of more help to think about the rhetorical effect of repetivite
patterns?).
Well, there=B4s a lot to think about, to cause trouble with/from, and to
complicate the state of affairs. If I have done that ... sorry. If anyone
has any comments, disagreements, or whatever do not hesitate to tell.
Best wishes,
Thomas J. Kraus
Universitaet Regensburg
Kath.-theol. Fakultaet
Universitaetsstr. 31
D-93053 Regensburg
Federal Republic of Germany
Tel. + 49 941 943 36 90
Fax. + 49 941 943 19 86
thomas-juergen.kraus at theologie.uni-regensburg.de
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