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Tue May 3 10:41:24 EDT 2011


(b)   if you are under the Law, sin will be the master of you.

It does not hold, in fact. This is a logical fallacy.

In fact, what we have is:

(c) If you are not under the Law but under grace, sin will not be 
    the master of  you.

My contention is that here "under the Law" and "under grace" may not be
exclusive of each other. I would like to take "not under the Law but under
grace"  to mean that "under grace" overlaps "not under the Law". Of
course,
it is also possible for "under grace" to overlap "under the Law", unless
we start from the premise that if "under the Law" then  "not under grace".

Now my question is: is this interpretation against the grammar or the 
structure of OU GAR ESTE hUPO NOMON ALLA hUPO CARIN ?

Moon
Moon-Ryul Jung
Associate Professor
Sogang Univ, Seoul, Korea



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