No subject
Tue May 3 10:41:24 EDT 2011
interchangeable in this regard. Nevertheless, I think I see your point.
If GAR had been used, it certainly would have been clearly intended to
mean "because." On the other hand, hOTI often introduces speech or
quotations. Is Jesus quoting someone prior? In paraphrased quotations,
hOTI can be translated "that." Note the use of ESTIN, which can be used
as a predicate to what exists.
Matthew 6:13c seems to be saying "don't leave us struggling, but protect
us from the bad guy that {hOTI} yours BE (emphasis) the kingdom, power
and glory for ever, so be it". It appears to be a situational contrast,
more than a reason. If left to our own devices to lean on our own
strength and will, we are vulnerable, even though the Father IS in
charge. So, as the Father aids us and protects us, then we ARE in his
kingdom.
Just my musing,
Richard Allan Stauch
Long Beach, CA
> -----Original Message-----
> From: Eric Weiss [mailto:eweiss at gte.net]
> Sent: Thursday, August 29, 2002 9:17 PM
> To: Biblical Greek
> Subject: [b-greek] hOTI for GAR?
>
> The most popular version of the disputed endings to "the Lord's
prayer"
> (Matthew 6:13c) reads: hOTI SOU ESTIN hH BASILEIA KAI hH DUNAMIS KAI
hH
> DOXA EIS TOUS AIWNAS. AMHN.
>
> As I was reading this, I wondered whether hOTI was usual here or if
one
> might have expected GAR. Also, what is the relationship of this hOTI
to
> what precedes: i.e., is it to be connected just to the immediately
> preceding clause (i.e., "deliver us from [the] evil [one] because
(hOTI)
> the kingdom and the power and the glory belong to you, not to evil or
> the Evil One), or is it to be connected to the whole prayer (i.e.,
give
> and do all these things because (hOTI) all rule and power and glory
> belong to you)? Would either of these answers be different if it was
GAR
> instead of hOTI?
>
> --
> Eric S. Weiss
> http://home1.gte.net/eweiss/index.htm
> S.D.G.
>
>
>
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