[B-Greek] 1Co 13:7 PANTA believe all?

Oun Kwon kwonbbl at gmail.com
Fri May 13 21:28:28 EDT 2011


On Fri, May 13, 2011 at 8:24 AM, nebarry <nebarry at verizon.net> wrote:
>

<clipped>
>
> Well, yeah.  The thought that occurs to me is that all accusatives,
> including what we call the direct object, are adverbial -- after all, the
> d.o. modifies the action of the verb by indicating the direction of the
> action, so to speak. Here, it's part of a series (nicely done from a
> rhetorical perspective), all with verbs that normally take accusatives.  I
> agree that a native Greek speaker wouldn't have given the grammar a second
> thought, but I can also here him asking the question, "Does Paul mean that
> literally?" or some such...  So I think that it does involve hermeneutics
> and theology beyond simply the grammar and syntax.
>

<clipped>
> N.E. Barry Hofstetter


I am trying to come out of fogginess on this. The 'accusative' as an
'object' actually reflects my thinking in English grammar.
Now, my problem is that I only recall 'PISTEUW + dative' and 'PISTEUW
+ EIS (EPI)'. Would 'accusative' belong to this group to give same
nuance? Or should go to the direction of what NIV did? Are there any
other examples I can see and compare other than 1Co?

Oun Kwon.


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