From: B.J. Williamson (hellen_ic@hotmail.com)
Date: Wed Jun 21 2000 - 15:48:42 EDT
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Lucky:
Carl wrote:
---- So far as John 1:6 is concerned, I would say there's an implicit contrast between 1:6 EGENETO ANQRWPOS APESTALMENOS PARA QEOU and 1:14 KAI hO LOGOS SARX EGENETO; I think John means to set off John "the Baptist" from the incarnate Word by (1) signaling his importance as a divinely-sent emissary while at the same time (2) sharply distinguishing him from Jesus as Word and Light. ------I would perhaps add that this "implicit" contrast of verse 14 (concerning the LOGOS) has an "explicit" contrast with verse 1 as well, where we are told that the LOGOS EN ARCHi HN.
That is, in verse 1, we are told that the LOGOS was existing (HN) at the point of this indefinite "beginning." (In fact, you could pick ANY beginning, and the statement regarding the LOGOS here would be true.) And in verse 14, the LOGOS became (EGENETO) flesh. The contrast then being that the LOGOS was in existence PRIOR TO this "beginning," while the LOGOS became ("took on") flesh AFTER this "beginning."
Your question as to John's purpose of "introducing the Christ" seems to be "explicitly" stated in the next verse (7) from the one you originally cited, hOUTOS HLQEN EIS MARTURIAN. Here, John's purpose is to bear witness of the Light, himself not being that Light.
Respectfully,
B. J. Williamson
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