From: Suedaleg@aol.com
Date: Sat Jul 01 2000 - 04:10:24 EDT
I have a question about the form of a verb and its implications if any. In
Luke 1:67 Luke use the aorist of PROFETEUW. I noticed that in the
Coptic/Egytian manuscripts it is EPROFUTEUSEN, but in the Byzantine
manuscripts it is PROEFHTEUSE. I understand the second as the compound is
PRO-FETEUW. Is the first simply a geographic dialect difference? or is there
a subtle distinction in how these two grougs may have seen the word?
Just curious about this. Thanks
Dale Greenlee
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