[b-greek] Periphrastic Question

From: Rob Matlack (rmatlack@juno.com)
Date: Wed Sep 20 2000 - 11:50:24 EDT


Could someone remind me or explain to me the periphrastic construction in
John 3.21:
... hINA FANERWQHi AUTOU TA ERGA hOTI EN QEWi ESTIN EIPGASMENA

I understand why ESTIN is singular (neuter plural subjects take a
singular verb), but why is the participle, EIPGASMENA, not singular also?
Obviously it is controlled by the noun, but why?

Rob Matlack
620 E. 5th St., Minneapolis, KS 67467

RMatlack@juno.com Hm: 785-392-2865 Church: 785-392-2089
"...that we may present every man mature in Christ Jesus."

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