From: Mark Wilson (emory2oo2@hotmail.com)
Date: Sat Sep 23 2000 - 09:51:51 EDT
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Wayne wrote in response to my response:
>Subject: [b-greek] Re: Eph 1:4/5 "in love"
-----
There appear to be very few cases of intended ambiguity in scripture. This
is not surprising because ambiguity in serious literary would be confusing
to a writer's audience, and few biblical writers likely wanted to confuse.
There are *no* certainties in any of my claims in this message, but, rather,
a strong tilt of the odds from what we know about language usage around the
world.
----Something, and I am not sure exactly what, just doesn't settle well with me concerning this comment. I am seeking help.
First, Wayne has introduced an element that I had not considered: intentional ambiguity.
I will have to put my "position" on hold with this new development :o )
But my initial thought was: that is irrelevent. The issue is not "WHY" it is ambiguous, but "THAT" it is ambiguous.
However, the final paragraph above causes me concern. And maybe it shouldn't.
To me, translating, which I certainly will not even remotely attempt to match Wayne's scholarship here, is not about "probabilities" or "strong tilt" or "gut feeling" as far as I am concerned (for the time being).
I have no idea if what I am suggesting is humanly impossible, but if we are not sure of a particular translation, should not our translations indicate those areas somehow?
Now this is not to suggest that we make some kind of disclaimer every time we decide on a particular Gentitive usage. Why? Because choosing one kind of Gentitive as opposed to another is a grammatical, or lower-level, issue, where personal preference is what distinguishes one translator from another. However, choosing one ambiguous construction over another is a theological, or higher-level, issue.
Sorry, but that is best way I can describe it.
Can anyone help me understand what I am saying? :o )
OFFLIST responses are always welcome.
Thank you,
Mark Wilson
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