[b-greek] Re: 1st John recipients

From: Mark Wilson (emory2oo2@hotmail.com)
Date: Thu Oct 12 2000 - 11:01:51 EDT


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>I have been looking at each group with their corresponding
>characteristic(s). Any suggestions as to why John uses these various
>groups?

To which Jim West wrote:
-----
because John wishes to address each member of the congregation. the
youngest (spiritually speaking); those with some skills, those who are
adults (again, spiritually speaking). In short, from the youngest to the
oldest believers, all are included....

again, because John wishes to inform all, leave none out, and give none any
reason for saying, "but he didnt say that I should...." Its a very pastoral
and practical approach.
-----

Based on my research, this is the most held position to my question. And it
very well may be the best explanation. But let me follow-up.

Not only does John not follow any logical sequence, (he does not go:
children -> young men -> fathers), he leaves out women, except possibly
within the "immature" group. Surely this would have been most offensive "if"
John were trying to "include everyone."

This is what prompted my question to begin with. Also, very little is
addressed to the "young men" and "fathers." Why the disproportionate
allotment?

What does lend some support to this view, however, is that fact that John
writes this epistle to: hUMIN hINA EIDHTE hOTI ZWHN ECETE AIWNION. The
fathers and young men would have settled this issue long ago, and perhaps
that is why there appears to be a disproportionate amount of the letter
addressed to the children.

Does anyone see any other possible explanation for the various groups, and
the omission of women?

Regards,

Mark Wilson

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