[b-greek] Future tense in Psalm 41:5 (LXX)

From: Jon D. Boyd (johanan@juno.com)
Date: Sat Dec 09 2000 - 11:57:06 EST


I was studying Psalm 41 in the LXX (Ps. 42 in English) and came across an
interesting use of the future tense.

Ps. 41:5 (LXX)

TAUTA EMNHSQHN KAI EXECEA EP' EME THN YUCHN MOU hOTI DIELEUSOMAI EN
TOPWi SKHNHS QAUMASTHS hEWS TOU OIKOU TOU QEOU EN FWNHi AGALLIASEWS KAI
EXOMOLOGHSEWS HCOU hEOPTAZONTOS.

My question centers on the use of the future tense DIELEUSOMAI. Most
English versions render the Hebrew as an imperfect: "I used to go . . ."
And the Hebrew word is in the prefix form, which indicates imperfective
aspect. But, as Carl has mentioned, the LXX can be interpreted on its
own merits. My question: What do you make of this use of the future
tense? Is this just a bad translation of the underlying Hebrew (changing
the sense of the Hebrew text), or can the future tense be used to
describe something that used to happen?

Thanks!
Jonathan Boyd
Ankeny, Iowa
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